BioSci 101 I-01-02 Quiz 1

Bios 101 Janovy I-01-02 FIRST EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 First Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 11:20. Choose the BEST answer.

1. The “scientific method” is (a) a hypothesis (b) a theory (c) a set of rules for forming and testing hypotheses (d) model (e) an informed guess.

2. A hypothesis is (a) an informed guess about the way nature works (b) an experiment (c) a statement about what makes a good control group (d) a statement about what makes a good experimental group (e) an ultimate question.

3. In order to be scientific, a hypothesis must (a) be true (b) address a question about nature (c) be testable (= disprovable) (d) make some prediction about the answer to an ultimate question (e) all of these.

4. Following a scientific experiment, the observed difference between your control and experimental groups (a) should be zero (b) must be zero (c) could be zero or some other value (d) must not be zero (e) none of these answers is correct.

5. General ideas about nature can become theories when scientists (a) routinely reject scientific hypotheses based on these ideas (b) use a reductionist approach in testing these ideas (c) ask ultimate questions based on such ideas (d) commonly fail to reject testable hypotheses based on the ideas.

6. If you measured the height of all the people in this room, then carefully recorded those heights, you would have (a) performed an experiment (b) taken a sample of the human population (c) tested a hypothesis (d) constructed a frequency distribution (e) all of these.

7. If you measured the height of all the people in this room, then did the same for the 11:30 Bios 101 class, you would have the data to (a) test a hypothesis (b) answer an ultimate question (c) answer a proximal question (d) demonstrate an emergent property (e) all of these.

8. If you measured the height of all the people in this room, then made a frequency distribution from the data, what would be the independent variable? (a) height (b) numbers of people of a particular height (c) number of people in the room (d) mean height (e) none of these.

9. If you measured the height of all the people in this room, then made a frequency distribution from the data, what would be the dependent variable? (a) height (b) numbers of people of a particular height (c) number of people in the room (d) mean height (e) any of these.

10. Reductionists approach scientific problems by (a) constructing a theory (b) looking for emergent properties (c) looking for answers to ultimate questions (d) breaking the problem down into smaller ones (e) designing experiments without a control group.

11. Which of the following would biologists consider a property that emerges from a particular organization of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and many other chemical elements? (a) a cell (b) a human being (c) art and literature (d) all of these (e) none of these.

12. Which of the following processes would you expect to be characteristic of all campus plants? (a) an evolutionary history (b) ontogeny or maturation (c) metabolism (d) some kind of a response to their immediate environment (e) all of these.

13. What do you know about the cells of your three favorite campus plants? (a) They came from pre-existing cells. (b) They carry out hydrolysis reactions. (c) They carry out dehydration synthesis. (d) They are eukaryotic. (e) all of these.

14. What do you know about the bacteria that live on the underside of the leaves of your three favorite campus plants? (a) They form peptide bonds. (b) They are prokaryotes. (c) They came from pre-existing bacteria. (d) They contain C, N, H, and O. (e) all of these.

15. Prokaryotic cells lack (a) DNA (b) C, H, and O (c) carbon skeletons (d) organelles surrounded by membranes (e) mechanisms for reproduction.

16. Eukaryotic cells possess or construct (a) carbon skeletons (b) organelles surrounded by membranes (c) DNA (d) C, H, and O (e) all of these.

17. Ethanol and acetic acid (a) are both polymers (b) have properties based on their molecular structure (c) are macromolecules (d) all of these (e) none of these.

18. Glucose (a) is a carbohydrate (b) is a polymer (c) contains relatively large amounts of nitrogen (d) has the same properties as CO₂ and H₂O (e) none of these.

19. Glycogen and cellulose (a) contain many amino acids (b) differ in the way their glucose units are linked together (c) perform similar functions for humans (d) are polymers whose units are linked by peptide bonds (e) all of these.

20. Hydrolysis of starch or glycogen yields (a) amino acids (b) nucleotides (c) fatty acids (d) glucose (e) any of these.

21. Which of the following would be made by the process of dehydration synthesis? (a) amino acids (b) polypeptides (c) fatty acids (d) glycerol (e) glucose.

22. Which of the following would be broken down by the process of hydrolysis? (a) glycogen (b) starch (c) triglycerides (d) enzymes (e) all of these.

23. Beginning with lipid as a substrate, which of the following would be the product of an enzyme reaction that carried out hydrolysis? (a) glycerol and fatty acids (b) glycogen (c) glucose (d) nucleic acids (e) polypeptides.

24. Unsaturated fatty acids (a) have double bonds between their carbon atoms (b) have nitrogen atoms in place of their amine groups (c) have amine groups instead of carboxyl groups (d) are linked to nucleotides instead of glycerol (e) are produced by dehydration synthesis.

25. Peptide bonds are formed between (a) carboxyl and amine groups (b) nucleotides (c) nucleic acids (d) glycerol and fatty acids (e) glucose molecules in cellulose.

26. Glycogen and cellulose differ in (a) the roles they play in living systems (b) the manner in which their molecules branch (c) the way their monomers are linked together (d) all of these (e) none of these.

27. Glycogen and starch differ in (a) the roles they play in living systems (b) the manner in which their molecules branch (c) the way their monomers are linked together (d) all of these (e) none of these.

28. Starch and cellulose differ in (a) the roles they play in living systems (b) the manner in which their molecules branch (c) the way their monomers are linked together (d) all of these (e) none of these.

29. The primary structure of a polypeptide is its (a) number of fatty acids (b) amino acid sequence (c) manner of coiling or folding (d) number of peptide bonds (e) sequence of nucleotides.

30. The quaternary structure of a protein is (a) number of amino acids (b) amino acid sequence (c) manner of coiling or folding (d) number of peptide bonds (e) combination of polypeptide subunits.

31. The secondary structure of a polypeptide is (a) number of amino acids (b) amino acid sequence (c) manner of coiling or folding (d) number of peptide bonds (e) combination of polypeptide subunits.

32. If you read the words “partially hydrogenated vegetable oils” on a junk food label, what do those words indicate? (a) numerous peptide bonds (b) double bonds between fatty acid carbons (c) high cellulose content (d) low glycerol content (e) none of these.

33. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed nucleic acids? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

34. What would be the substrate of an enzyme that hydrolyzed nucleic acids? (a) nucleic acids (b) nucleotides (c) polypeptides (d) polysaccharides (e) none of these.

35. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed other enzymes? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

36. Nucleotides contain (a) nitrogen atoms (b) five carbon sugars (c) carbohydrates (d) phosphate groups (e) all of these.

37. The information contained in nucleic acids is to be found in (a) the sequence of amino acids (b) the sequence of nucleotides (c) the tertiary and quarternary structures (d) the manner in which the polymer is twisted (e) all of these.

38. Which of the following represents RNA? (a) AATCTGCCA (b) met-ser-lys-arg-his-trp (c) GAUCGCUAUAC (d) GCGAATCGCAAT (e) leu-ala-val-gly-ser-ser-asp

39. The Central Dogma states that in a cell, information “flows” from (a) DNA to protein to RNA (b) RNA to protein to DNA (c) protein to RNA to DNA (d) DNA to RNA to protein (e) none of these answers are correct.

40. Lewis Thomas’ analogy of the earth as a cell is based on (a) his reductionist approach to science (b) the large number of polymers in cells (c) the complex organization and many interactions that occur between both parts of earth and parts of cells (d) the fact that both are made primarily of C, H, and O (e) all of these.

41. Thomas’ view of viruses is that they are (a) agents of disease (b) eukaryotic cells (c) mobile genes (d) the original mitochondria (e) prokaryotic cells.

42.Thomas’ claim that we are not single entities is based on (a) the large number of micro-organisms that live in us (b) the fact that mitochondria have their own DNA (c) his view of viruses (d) all of these.

43. According to Thomas, (a) most of our associations are cooperative ones (b) we have real knowledge about most of the microbes of earth (c) soil is pretty much sterile, lacking bacteria (d) all of these.

44. According to Thomas, science achieves a collective power (a) in approximately the same manner as termites (b) from a reductionist approach to problems (c) from an understanding of the way pheromones work (d) from a real knowledge of most microbes (e) from its knowledge of DNA.

45. According to Thomas, pheromones (a) are usually small molecules (b) act in extremely small concentrations (c) function in a wide variety of species (d) may operate in humans as well as in other primates (e) all of these.

A key to this exam will be posted in the glass showcase next to 424 Manter, probably by 12:00, but the grades will not be posted until Friday morning. Please keep your exam.

Bios 101 Janovy I-04-05 FIRST EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, clicker pad number, and the words “BS101 First Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and pad number. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 11:20. Choose the BEST answer.

1. A scientific theory is (a) a true statement (b) a false statement that scientists try to prove true (c) an assertion that is demonstrated to be false (d) a general explanation for natural phenomena (e) an assertion that has failed to be falsified.

2. A scientific hypothesis is (a) a true statement (b) a false statement that scientists try to prove true (c) an assertion that can be demonstrated to be false (d) a general explanation for natural phenomena (e) an assertion that cannot be falsified.

3. Following a scientific experiment, the observed difference between your control and experimental groups (a) should be zero (b) must be zero (c) could be zero or some other value (d) must not be zero (e) none of these answers is correct.

4. General ideas about nature can become theories when scientists (a) routinely reject scientific hypotheses based on these ideas (b) use a reductionist approach in testing these ideas (c) ask ultimate questions based on such ideas (d) commonly fail to reject testable hypotheses based on the ideas.

5. Life’s uniformity can be seen in (a) the manner in which polypeptides are assembled (b) the structure of glucose (c) cell surface glycoproteins specific to a certain cell type (d) the characteristics that distinguish one campus plant species from another (e) all of these.

6. A good example of life’s enormous diversity superimposed on uniformity can be seen in (a) use of DNA evidence to convict a criminal (b) genetic diversity of the organisms in tropical forests (c) the numbers of different polypeptides found in a cell (d) students at UNL (e) all of these.

7. What should the average person remember about the Permian extinction? (a) It’s when the dinosaurs died out. (b) It’s still going on today. (c) About 90% of the Earth’s biodiversity (genera) evidently became extinct. (d) It was caused by humans. (e) All of these answers are appropriate ones.

8. Which of the following could you easily find in an ecosystem if you had the right techniques and equipment? (a) lysosomes (b) polypeptides (c) pre-predator relationships (d) organelles (e) all of these.

9. In general, what does a “Tree of Life” based on molecular data suggest? (a) Scientific hypotheses about evolutionary relationships can be developed and tested using appropriate technology. (b) There are two major groups of organisms we call “bacteria.” (c) Among what we call “bacteria” there are organisms no more closely related to one another than to humans. (d) Dogs, mushrooms, and campus plants are more closely related to one another than any of them is to bacteria. (e) all of these.

10. If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a) membrane proteins to move around (b) membrane proteins to remain fixed in place (c) lipid molecules to occur in a single layer (d) numerous lysosomes to be floating in the membrane (e) none of these.

11. Which of the following function primarily to “package” cell products such as proteins? (a) lysosome (b) Golgi apparatus (c) mitochondria (d) chloroplast (e) nuclear envelope.

12. Which of the following are most likely to contain hydrolytic enzymes? (a) mitochondria (b) cell wall (c) chloroplasts (d) lysosome (e) nuclear envelope.

13. During the process of differentiation, eukaryotic cells with identical genetic makeup usually (a) start making new kinds of proteins (b) acquire new functions (c) stop making some kinds of protein (d) become parts of different tissues (e) all of these.

14. In theories of the symbiotic origin of eukaryotic cells, which of the following would be considered degenerate symbionts? (a) lysosomes (b) chloroplasts and mitochondria (c) endoplasmic reticulum (d) Golgi apparatus (e) all of these.

15. What is probably the first step in digesting “soy protein isolate”? (a) oxidation (b) reduction (c) dehydration synthesis (d) hydrolysis (e) gene expression.

23. A peptide bond occurs between (a) glycerol and a fatty acid (b) nucleotides in DNA (c) amino acids in a protein (d) cytochromes and electrons (e) all of these.

24. The primary structure of soy protein would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids (b) the sequence of its nucleotides (c) the folding of its polypeptides (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are paired (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

1. The “scientific method” is (a) a hypothesis (b) a theory (c) a set of rules for forming and testing hypotheses (d) model (e) an informed guess.

1. Which of the following would you expect to be able to actually see in an electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell? (a) rough endoplasmic reticulum (b) fatty acids (c) peptide bonds (d) the citric acid cycle (e) the Calvin cycle.

2. In an electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell, in order to distinguish smooth ER from rough ER, you would look for (a) lysosomes (b) chloroplasts (c) ribosomes (d) Golgi complex (e) centrioles.

3. In an electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify a mitochondrion, you would look for (a) a sausage-shaped body with internal folded membranes (b) a stack of flattened sacs (c) lines of double membranes with dark particles attached to them (d) a group of circular vesicles.

4. Which of the following would you expect to see in an electron micrograph of a plant cell, but not in an electron micrograph of an animal cell? (a) Golgi complex (b) chloroplast (c) nuclear envelope (d) endoplasmic reticulum (e) none of these.

5. Which of the following would you expect to see in electron micrographs of both an animal and a plant cell? (a) mitochondria (b) nuclear envelope (c) membrane-bound compartments (d) all of these.

7. If the fluid mosaic model accurately describes all cellular membranes, where might you expect to find transport proteins? (a) mitochondria (b) plasma membrane (c) Golgi apparatus (d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum (e) in all of these organelles.

8. If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a) membrane proteins to move around. (b) membrane proteins to remain fixed in place. (c) lipid molecules to occur in a single layer. (d) numerous lysosomes to be floating in the membrane.

9. If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a) glycoproteins to be on a membrane surface. (b) to find transport proteins in the membrane. (c) both saturated and unsaturated fatty acids to be in the lipid bilayer. (d) to find cholesterol in the lipid bilayer. (e) all of these.

18. Glucose (a) is a carbohydrate (b) is a polymer (c) contains relatively large amounts of nitrogen (d) has the same properties as CO₂ and H₂O (e) none of these.

20. Hydrolysis of starch or glycogen yields (a) amino acids (b) nucleotides (c) fatty acids (d) glucose (e) any of these.

30. The quaternary structure of a protein is (a) number of amino acids (b) amino acid sequence (c) manner of coiling or folding (d) number of peptide bonds (e) combination of polypeptide subunits.

33. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed nucleic acids? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

34. What would be the substrate of an enzyme that hydrolyzed nucleic acids? (a) nucleic acids (b) nucleotides (c) polypeptides (d) polysaccharides (e) none of these.

35. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed other enzymes? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

Bios 101 Janovy I-01-02 SECOND EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 Second Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 11:20. Choose the BEST answer.

2. In an electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell, in order to distinguish smooth ER from rough ER, you would look for (a) lysosomes (b) chloroplasts (c) ribosomes (d) Golgi complex (e) centrioles.

5. Which of the following would you expect to see in electron micrographs of both an animal and a plant cell? (a) mitochondria (b) nuclear envelope (c) membrane-bound compartments (d) all of these.

6. What might be contained in a membrane-bound compartment? (a) enzymes (b) protein (c) bacteria (d) amino acids and lipids (e) any of these.

10. What is inside a lysosome? (a) glycogen (b) hydrolytic enzymes (c) nucleic acids (d) glucose.

11. What happens during endocytosis? (a) A cell’s environment is taken into the cell. (b) The plasma membrane gets turned inside out. (c) A cellular compartment is formed. (d) all of these.

12. When enzyme reactions are linked (a) the substrate of one enzyme is also the substrate for another. (b) both enzymes produce the same product. (c) the product of one reaction is a substrate for the next. (d) one enzyme carries out two different reactions.

13. A metabolic pathway (a) consists of several linked enzyme reactions. (b) produces carbon skeletons. (c) produces several substrates. (d) may produce a usable form of energy. (e) all of these.

14. The energy contained in molecules such as glucose and amino acids (a) is greater than the energy required to build the molecules. (b) is present because of the chemical structure of those molecules. (c) can be extracted by means of Calvin cycle pathways. (d) cannot be converted to other forms of energy.

15. Which of the following components of peanuts and Kellogg’s Nutri-Twists contain potential chemical energy that can be converted into ATP? (a) partially hydrogenated soybean oil. (b) starch. (c) protein. (d) all of these. (e) none of these.

16. Assuming your textbook and handout metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could you, personally, make from the ingredients in a Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist? (a) polypeptides (b) DNA (c) cell membrane (d) polysaccharides (e) all of these.

17. If the answer to #16 is (a), that necessary synthesis would occur by way of (a) anabolic reactions. (b) catabolic reactions. (c) the Calvin cycle. (d) photosynthesis.

18. If the answer to #16 is (c), then the process would likely (a) generate useable ATP. (b) consume existing supplies of ATP. (c) fix CO₂ by way of Calvin cycle reactions. (d) all of these.

19. Assuming textbook and handout metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following ingredients in a Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist could you, personally, convert into useful energy by way of catabolic reactions? (a) tapioca starch (b) cream cheese solids (c) citric acid (d) oats (e) all of these.

20. If the answer to #19 is (a), then the first step in that process would be (a) glycolysis. (b) hydrolysis. (c) oxidation. (d) reduction. (e) electron transfer.

21. If the answer to #19 is (c), the conversion would probably first involve (a) the Calvin cycle. (b) the citric acid cycle. (c) glycolysis. (d) light-dependent reactions. (e) any of these.

22. According to the anabolic and catabolic summary diagrams in your textbook and handout, which of the following statements is true:

(a) Carbon from carbohydrates could end up in amino acids.

(b) Carbon from amino acids could end up in lipids.

(d) Carbon from amino acids could end up in carbohydrates.

(e) all of these.

23. Which of the following ingredients of a Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist would be considered a vitamin or part of a vitamin? (a) niacinamide (b) diglycerides (c) sugar (d) monoglycerides (e) all of these.

24. Which of the following are products of citric acid cycle reactions? (a) amino acids (b) reduced and oxidized cytochromes (c) CO₂ and reduced hydrogen carriers (d) polypeptides (e) all of these.

25. In the citric acid cycle, (a) glucose is produced. (b) some end products are the same as the starting substrates. (c) carbon dioxide is fixed at several steps. (d) peptide bonds are formed. (e) all of these.

26. What role do cytochromes play in cellular respiration? (a) They carry out oxidation-reduction reactions (b) They are an essential part of oxidative phosphorylation. (c) They are essential to ATP synthesis. (d) all of these.

27. Photosynthesis occurs in (a) mitochondria. (b) chloroplasts. (c) lysosomes. (d) endoplasmic reticulum. (e) Golgi apparatus.

28. Which of the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) oxygen (b) CO₂ (c) ADP (d) glucose (e) all of these.

29. Which of the following is consumed during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) H₂O (b) ATP (c) glucose (d) all of these (e) none of these.

30. Which of the following occurs during the Calvin Cycle but not during the light reactions? (a) H₂O is split (b) CO₂ is fixed (c) ADP is converted to ATP (d) hydrogen carriers become oxidized (e) all of these.

31. Which of the following processes are carried out by producers but not by primary (1^o)consumers? (a) cellular respiration (b) photosynthesis (c) predation (d) nucleic acid synthesis (e) all of these.

32. Which of the following is carried out by both primary (1^o) and secondary (2^o) consumers? (a) Calvin cycle reactions (b) glycolysis (c) photophosphorylation (d) all of these (e) none of these.

33. If the diagrams in your textbook are correct, a carbon atom that is now part of polysaccharide in a grass seed could easily end up in (a) a dragonfly amino acid. (b) the lipid bilayer in a chloroplast. (c) a ground squirrel gene. (d) atmospheric CO₂. (e) any of these.

34. Lewis Thomas believes that human communications (a) are restricted to signals containing real information. (b) contain vast amounts of “small talk.” (c) eliminate the silence of the natural world. (d) enable us to understand the meaning of natural sounds and place those sounds into a proper context.

35. According to Thomas, which of the following are used, by non-human animals, to make sounds? (a) feet (b) abdomen (c) head (d) teeth (e) all of these.

36. The evidence Thomas cites for purely musical content of bird and whale songs includes the fact that (a) some of these songs match known human compositions. (b) the songs rarely vary in their melody. (c) the songs can be highly variable, even from a single animal. (d) the songs are repeated exactly by different individuals.

37. In the chapter “An Earnest Proposal,” Thomas suggests that (a) we already have enough information about non-human organisms. (b) we should defer military actions until we know everything about a single non-human organism. (c) Myxotricha paradoxa is the best organism to use for biological warfare. (d) the organisms that live on M. paradoxa will help us survive a biological warfare.

38. Myxotricha paradoxa is (a) a producer [in the ecological sense]. (b) a species of insect. (c) a supposedly single-celled animal that lives inside termites. (d) a highly contagious bacteria. (e) none of these.

39. Thomas defines “halfway [medical] technology” as (a) supportive care for the terminally ill. (b) expensive procedures such as heart transplants. (c) vaccines. (d) all of these. (e) none of these.

40. Examples of what Thomas considers “genuinely decisive technology” are (a) supportive care for the terminally ill. (b) expensive procedures such as heart transplants. (c) vaccines and antibiotics. (d) the treatment of certain disorders with hormones. (e) all of these.

41. Examples of what Thomas considers “nontechnology” include (a) supportive care for the terminally ill. (b) expensive procedures such as heart transplants. (c) vaccines. (d) the treatment of certain disorders with hormones. (e) all of these.

42. According to Thomas, by far the most expensive medical technology is (a) genuinely decisive technology (b) halfway technology (c) nontechnology.

43. According to Thomas, current treatments for which of the following diseases illustrate best the impact of scientific research and genuinely decisive technology on the field of medicine? (a) heart disease (b) cancer (c) polio and typhoid fever (d) kidney disease [chronic glomerulonephritis] (e) all of these.

44. In the chapter “Vibes,” Thomas focuses on (a) olfactory abilities of animals. (b) sounds of animals. (c) sensory technology. (d) medical technology. (e) military technology.

45. The term “allelochemics” refers to (a) the use of chemicals in warfare. (b) the chemistry of halfway medical technology. (c) the use of chemicals as a means of communication in plants and animals. (d) the use of chemicals to make sounds. (e) development of antibiotics.

46. In the chapter “Ceti,” Thomas suggests that the most effective means of communication with intelligent life on other planets would be (a) chemical signals. (b) music, specifically Bach. (c) a mixture of languages. (d) light of various colors. (e) manned spacecraft.

47. In the chapter “Ceti,” Thomas argues that (a) intelligent life exists on planets around various stars. (b) the best question to ask intelligent extra-terrestrials is “Did you think yourselves unique?” (c) the CETI project is actually biological research being conducted using our most complex physics. (d) intelligent extra-terrestials might already have genuinely decisive medical technology.

48. In his essay “The Long Habit,” Thomas claims that (a) long lives are not necessarily pleasurable in the kind of society we live in. (b) modern medicine does not handle death with as much skill as did doctors in previous times. (c) death on a grand scale does not seem to bother us as much as death of close relatives. (d) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-04-05 SECOND EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, pad number, and the words “BS101 Second Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and pad#. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 11:20. Choose the BEST answer.

1. During which of the following cell cycle phases would thymine be using in the construction of a polynucleotide? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) any of these phases.

2. CATTGCGCAAT is a piece of genetic information. Which of the following would be the complementary strand of DNA that satisfies the base pairing rules? (a) CATTGCGCAAT (b) GTAACGCGTTA (c) CTTAGCGCAAT (d) TTACAAGTTGC (e) any of these.

3. In mitosis, what happens during anaphase? (a) chromosomes separate (b) DNA is synthesized (c) chromosomes undergo synapsis (d) chromosomes become visible (e) the cell enters G2.

4. If a mutation is a mistake in DNA synthesis that can be passed on to future generations, during which cell cycle phase must that mistake occur? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) any of these phases.

5. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair (b) have half many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair (e) enter G2 before they enter S.

6. Daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair (b) have as many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair (d) enter G1 before they enter M.

7. How many chromatids would you expect to see in a replicated homologous pair of chromosomes? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16.

8. What happens during meiosis anaphase I that does not happen during mitosis anaphase? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) DNA synthesis (e) mutations.

9. What happens during meiosis anaphase I that does not happen during anaphase II? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) DNA synthesis (e) mutations.

10. What happens during meiosis anaphase II that does not happen during anaphase I? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) sister chromatids separate (e) none of these

11. Which of the following crosses will produce more genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a) aa x aa (b) aa x Aa (c) Aa x Aa (d) AA x AA (e) both b and c.

12. Which of the crosses in the previous question would you expect to produce less genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a) b (b) both a and d (c) both b and c (d) c (e) none of them.

13. Which of the following crosses will produce more genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a) AaBb x AaBb (b) aabb x Aabb (c) AABB x aabb (d) AAbb x AAbb (e) both b and c.

14. Which of the crosses in the previous question would you expect to produce less genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a) b (b) both a and d (c) both b and c (d) c (e) none of them.

15. Which of the following processes is responsible for the genetic diversity seen in offspring? (a) independent assortment (b) crossing over (c) mutation (d) all of these (e) none of these.

NOTE: In the following five questions, “kinds” means different combinations of alleles.

16. How many different kinds of gametes would DdMmRrQq be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

17. Which of the following would be one of the gametes made by the individual in the previous question? (a) DMrq (b) DdMmRrQq (c) dmrq (d) dMmQq (e) any of these.

18. How many different kinds of gametes would AaDdTTGg be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

19. Which of the following could be a gamete made by the individual in the previous question? (a) adTTg (b) ADTG (c) aDdG (d) AdtG (e) any of these.

20. What proportion of the gametes made by the individual in the last two questions would be AdTg? (a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/16 (e) you can’t determine this answer from the information given.

21. If the individual referred to in the last five questions is actually the same individual organism, then based only on the information provided in those questions and answers, what do you know about the species to which this individual belongs? (a) It has at least 8 different homologous pairs of chromosomes. (b) The A, D and G loci are linked. (c) It can make at least 128 different kinds of gametes. (d) the T and M loci are linked. (e) all of these.

22. If the individual in question #18 has the following homologous pair of chromosomes: ADTG and adTg, then which of the following processes would produce gametes with AdTg or aDTG? (a) synapsis (b) non-disjunction (c) crossing over (d) base pairing (e) any of these.

23. If the individual in question #18 has the following homologous pair of chromosomes: ADTG and adTg, then which of the following individuals would you cross it with to determine whether it actually had produced gametes with AdTg or aDTG? (a) aaddttgg (b) AADDTTGG (c) AaDdTTGG (d) any of these (e) you can’t tell from the information given.

For the following few questions, let us consider the traits Mendel used in studying his pea plants. The traits are:

Tall stem = T; dwarf stem = t Axial flower = A; terminal flower = a

Purple flower = P; white flower = p Inflated pod = I; constricted pod = i

Green pod = G; yellow pod = g Round seed = R; wrinkled seed = r

Yellow seed = Y; green seed = y

24. Which of the following crosses will produce the most genetic diversity? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

25. Which of the following crosses will produce the least genetic diversity? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

26. Which of the following crosses might Mendel have done to demonstrate segregation of alleles? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(e) none of these.

27. If he’d known the breeding history of all his plants, which of the following crosses might Mendel have done to demonstrate independent assortment?

(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy

(e) any of these.

The next few questions concern the cross: ttAaPpIiggRryy (Plant #1) x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (Plant #2).

28. How many kinds of gametes can Plant #1 make? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32 (e) 128.

29. How many kinds of gametes can Plant #2 make? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 64 (e) 128.

30. Which of the following plants would you use in a breeding experiment to check your answers to questions #28 and #29? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) ttaappiiggrryy.

31. Why would you use the plant you chose for the answer to question #30? (a) Offspring phenotype proportions would reflect parent gamete types. (b) Offspring genotype ratios would be 1:2:1. (c) Some of the loci in the parent plants are linked. (d) You could detect crossing over in this particular mating. (e) all of these.

32. If you cross Plant #1 and Plant #2, what fraction of the offspring will have purple flowers? (a) zero (b)1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them.

33. If you cross Plant #1 and Plant #2, what fraction of the offspring will have both purple flowers and yellow pods? (a) zero (b) 1/8 (c) 1/4 (d) 3/4 (e) 3/8.

34. If you allowed Plant #1 to self fertilize (or cross with another genetically equal plant), what fraction of the seeds would grow into a dwarf plant? (a) zero (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them.

35. Both parents of Plant #1 must have (a) been tall (b) been dwarf (c) had yellow seeds (d) had axial flowers (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

36. At how many of the loci in Plants #1 and #2 would alleles assort independently from one another? (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) all of them (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

37. How many different genotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing? (a) 6 (b) 54 (c) 108 (d) 324 (e) 648.

38. How many different phenotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing? (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64 (e) 128.

39. If you started a garden by allowing Plant #1 to self fertilize and planting the seeds, which of the following traits would breed true? (a) flower color (b) flower position (c) height (d) seed shape (e) all of these.

40. What is “genetic information”? (a) traits such as flower color (b) nucleotide sequences (c) histone amino acid sequences (d) purines and pyrimidines (e) the probability of obtaining a particular kind of offspring.

41. In humans and fruit flies, if the H locus is found on the X chromosome, and the H allele is completely dominant over the h allele, then (a) females can be homozygous recessive (b) males can be heterozygous (c) males can express the dominant allele but not the recessive allele (d) both sexes can be heterozygous (e) all of these.

42. What would you expect to find in both adenine and guanine? (a) nitrogen atoms (b) phosphate groups (c) carbohydrates (d) ring structures (e) all of these.

43. If ATTGCGTAT is a part of a DNA molecule, which of the following would not be part of a mutant allele produced during S phase of the cell containing such DNA? (a) TAACGCATA (b) TAAGGCATA (c) TAACGGTAT (d) ATTGCGTTT (e) all of these.

44. If ATTGCGTAT is a part of a cell’s DNA, which of the following do you know would be part of a sister chromatid made during S phase of mitosis in that cell? (a) ATTGCGTAT (b) TATGGGTTA (c) TAAGCGATA (d) TAACGCTAT (e) any of these.

45. When marine organisms die, their calcium carbonate shells sink to the ocean floor, become covered with sediments, and form (a) granite (b) basalt (c) limestone (d) chitin (e) polynucleotides.

46. Which of the following are plausible events in the carbon cycle? (a) A hippo is bitten by a mosquito. (b) A cell’s mitochondrion is digested in a vacuole fused with a lysosome. (c) Coal is burned by a power plant. (d) Muffins are sold and consumed by an Iraqi child. (d) all of these.

47. What events can occur during the life of a mosquito? (a) If females the insect would seek blood meals. (b) Plasmodium falciparium could mate in its gut. (c) Plasmodium falciparum could undergo meiosis in its gut. (d) Its larvae molt. (e) all of these.

48. In human beings, which of the following genetic conditions result from non-disjunction of chromosome #21? (a) Down syndrome (b) Klinefelter syndrome (c) XYY syndrome (d) Woody Guthrie disease (e) muscular dystrophy.

49. In human beings, which of the following genetic conditions is associated with resistance to malaria? (a) Down syndrome (b) sickle cell trait (c) cystic fibrosis (d) Huntington’s disease (e) muscular dystrophy.

50. The statistics on children born with a particular genetic disorder demonstrate that the probability of such children being born varies according to (a) cultural practices of parents (b) historical social behavior of certain groups (b) the child’s sex (d) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-01-02 THIRD EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 Third Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 11:20. Choose the BEST answer.

1. In the cell cycle, what happens during M? (a) chromosomes separate and the cell divides (b) DNA is synthesized (c) nothing (d) the cell differentiates into an embryonic stem cell.

2. In the cell cycle, what happens during S? (a) chromosomes separate and the cell divides (b) DNA is synthesized (c) nothing (d) homologous pairs segregate (e) the chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies.

3. During prophase (a) chromosomes separate (b) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) the cell actually divides into two.

4. During metaphase (a) chromosomes separate (b) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) the cell actually divides into two.

5. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) are genetically equal (b) have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair.

6. Daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have only one member of each homologous pair (b) have only one member of each pair of alleles (c) have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) all of these (e) none of these.

7. How many chromatids would you expect to see in a replicated homologous pair of chromosomes? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16.

8. What happens during meiosis anaphase I that does not happen during mitosis anaphase? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) DNA synthesis (e) mutations.

9. In a cell dividing by mitosis, when are nucleotide sequences replicated? (a) prophase (b) metaphase (c) interphase (d) G₂ (e) telophase.

10. Which of the following would be a piece of mRNA? (a) AATGCTCATCGAT (b) AUGCGCACC (c) TAATCGCATC (d) AAAAAAAAA (e) all of these.

11. How many amino acids would you expect to be present in the polypeptide resulting from expression of the gene ATACCGATTCAGCAT? (a) one (b) five (c) fifteen (d) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

12. Which of the following sequences would be a transcript from the DNA sequence AATGCTACG? (a) TTACGATGC (b) AAUGCTACG (c) AATGCTACG (d) UUACGAUGC (e) none of these.

13. Which of the following sequences would be considered a translation of some DNA sequence? (a) AATGCTACG (b) UUACGAUGC (c) rRNA (d) mRNA (e) ala-lys-met-val-glu.

Here is some information about pea genes studied by Mendel:

R = round seed; r = wrinkled seed Y = yellow seed; y = green seed

P = purple flower; p = white flower I = inflated pod; i = constricted pod

G = green pod; g = yellow pod A = axial flower; a = terminal flower

S = long stem; s = short stem

Answer the following questions about this cross: rrYyPpIiGgAAss x RrYyPpIiggAass

NOTE: In the following questions you can assume complete dominance, and “kinds” means different combinations of alleles.

14. How many homologous pairs of chromosomes are represented by these genotypes? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

15. How many different kinds of gametes can the plant on the left make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

16. Which of the following could be a gamete made by the plant on the right? (a) rryy (b) rypigas (c) Rrgg (d) YyPp (e) any of these.

17. What fraction of the offspring from these plants will have round seeds? (a) none of them (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them.

18. What do you know about the parents of the plant on the left? (a) They both had axial flowers. (b) One had long stems. (c) One had terminal flowers. (d) Both had white flowers. (e) You can’t answer this question from the information given.

19. Given the above information about the plant on the right, you can not determine whether one of its parents had (a) purple flowers (b) wrinkled seeds (c) yellow seeds (d) axial flowers (e) inflated pods.

20. What can you discover about the parents of the plant on the left by crossing each of them with plants homozygous recessive at all loci? (a) the kinds and proportions of gametes being made (b) the number of heterozygous loci (c) the number of homozygous loci (d) all of these (e) none of these.

21. What fraction of the offspring from these two plants will have both yellow seeds and axial flowers? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) you can’t answer this question from the information given.

22. What fraction of the offspring from these two plants will have wrinkled seeds, short stems, and yellow pods? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) you can’t answer this question from the information given.

23. In order to figure out how many different kinds of gametes are made by each of these plants, you would have to cross each of them with (a) RrYyPpIiGgAaSs (b) RRYYPPIIGGAASS (c) rryyppiiggaass (d) any of these (e) none of these crosses will reveal the answer.

24. Why do the alleles at these 7 loci assort independently? (a) They are linked. (b) They are on the same homologous pairs of chromosomes. (c) They are on sister chromatids. (d) Each locus is on a different pair of homologous chromosomes. (e) You can’t answer this question from the information given.

25. If you knew only the phenotypes of the above plants, what kind of genotype should you use in a cross in order to determine which loci of each plant are homozygous dominant and which are heterozygous? (a) RrYyPpIiGgAaSs (b) RRYYPPIIGGAASS (c) rryyppiiggaass (d) any of these (e) none of these crosses will reveal the answer.

26. How many phenotypes could be present in the offspring from these two plants? (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32 (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

27. Which phenotypes do you know cannot be present in the offspring from these two plants? (a) green pods (b) terminal flowers (c) short stems (d) wrinkled seeds (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

28. Which phenotypes do you know were present in at least one of the “grandparents” of these plants? (a) green pods (b) terminal flowers (c) short stems (d) wrinkled seeds (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

29. For how many of these traits are these plants “true breeding”? (a) one (b) two (c) four (d) seven (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

30. For how many of these traits could all four “grandparents” of these plants have been “true breeding”? (a) one (b) two (c) four (d) seven (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

31. For how many of these traits must all four “grandparents” of these plants have been “true breeding”? (a) one (b) two (c) four (d) seven (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

32. What fraction of the offspring of these plants will be homozygous dominant at all loci? (a) none (b) 1/16 (c) 1/32 (d) 1/128 (e) you can’t answer this question from the information given.

33. What fraction of the offspring of these plants will be homozygous recessive at all loci? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/16 (d) 1/256 (e) you can’t answer this question from the information given.

34. What fraction of the offspring of these plants will be heterozygous at all loci? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them.

35. How many different phenotypes should be present in the offspring from this mating? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 16 (d) 32 (e) 128.

36. What fraction of the short-stemmed offspring will also have purple flowers and wrinkled seeds? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 3/8 (e) you can’t answer this question from the information given.

37. What fraction of the purple-flowered offspring will have green pods but carry the gene for yellow pods? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them.

38. What fraction of the inflated-pod plants will be “true breeding” for seed color? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them.

(End of pea plant questions.)

39. How many different kinds of gametes would an organism with the genotype AaDdMm be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

40. Which of the following could be a gamete made by the individual in question #39? (a) adm (b) ADM (c) adM (d) AdM (e) any of these.

41. According to Lewis Thomas, (a) there is no such thing as an individual ant or termite. (b) ants survive perfectly well as individuals but termites do not. (c) plastic enclosures are the secret to keeping army ants alive. (d) 2 million ants together show capacity for insight and learning.

42. According to Thomas, the behavior of social insects (a) is rigidly stereotyped. (b) serves as a source of parables for humans. (c) has been used to teach us virtues such as altruism and patience. (d) can vary depending on how many individuals are present. (e) all of these.

43. According to Thomas, research at the Woods Hole Marine Biological Laboratory (a) explained why plastic enclosures keep army ants alive. (b) used squid nerves to develop the science of neuro-biology. (c) is successful because scientists are isolated from one another. (d) all of these.

44. According to Thomas, (a) internal functions such as heart rate may be subject to modification through “learning.” (b) if he could control his own liver functions he would be healthier. (c) smooth muscle cells and secretory cells require some level of control from an individual. (d) all of these.

45. According to Thomas, developments in molecular biology (a) show mitochondrial DNA to be distinctly different from eukaryotic nuclear DNA. (b) suggest that some organelles are actually “enslaved creatures” of different evolutionary origin from the cells in they reside. (c) suggest that organisms are actually just homes for symbiotic organelles. (d) all of these.

46. According to Thomas, (a) we are obsessed with our health. (b) most bacteria are harmless. (c) some bacteria become dangerous when they are infected with viruses (bacteriophages). (d) pathogenicity is so rare as to be almost freakish. (e) all of these.

47. According to Thomas, (a) our mechanisms for killing bacteria are often responsible for disease. (b) because of the lipopolysaccharide endotoxin in their cell walls, gram-negative bacteria are ignored by our tissues. (c) endotoxin can cure bacterial infections. (d) all of these.

48. According to Thomas, (a) humans need constant care in order to stay healthy. (b) diseases develop because of carelessness about the preservation of our health. (c) families of physicians receive much more health care than the population at large. (d) most things [health problems] get better by themselves, in fact most things get better by morning. (e) all of these.

49. According to Thomas, (a) language is the one trait that separates us from other species. (b) our ability to use language probably has a genetic basis. (c) language evolves on its own. (d) different languages can exist side by side for centuries without influencing one another. (e) all of these.

50. According to Thomas, (a) lymphocytes [white blood cells] function exactly like caterpillar-killing wasps. (b) lymphocytes vary as individual cells in their ability to recognize molecular information. (c) ambiguity is often ignored by cells such as lymphocytes. (d) ambiguity eliminates the transfer of information by way of spoken language. (e) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-01-02 FINAL EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 Final Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 12:00. Choose the BEST answer.

1. A hypothesis is (a) an informed guess about the way nature works (b) an experiment (c) a statement about what makes a good control group (d) a statement about what makes a good experimental group (e) an ultimate question.

2. In order to be scientific, a hypothesis must (a) be true (b) address a question about nature (c) be testable (= disprovable) (d) make some prediction about the answer to an ultimate question (e) all of these.

5. If you measured the height of all the people in this room, then made a frequency distribution from the data, what would be the independent variable? (a) height (b) numbers of people of a particular height (c) number of people in the room (d) mean height (e) none of these.

6. If you measured the height of all the people in this room, then made a frequency distribution from the data, what would be the dependent variable? (a) height (b) numbers of people of a particular height (c) number of people in the room (d) mean height (e) any of these.

7. Reductionists approach scientific problems by (a) constructing a theory (b) looking for emergent properties (c) looking for answers to ultimate questions (d) breaking the problem down into smaller ones (e) designing experiments without a control group.

8. What do you know about the cells of your three favorite campus plants? (a) They came from pre-existing cells. (b) They carry out hydrolysis reactions. (c) They carry out dehydration synthesis. (d) They are eukaryotic. (e) all of these.

9. What do you know about the bacteria that live on the underside of the leaves of your three favorite campus plants? (a) They form peptide bonds. (b) They are prokaryotes. (c) They came from pre-existing bacteria. (d) They contain C, N, H, and O. (e) all of these.

10. Glycogen and cellulose (a) contain many amino acids (b) differ in the way their glucose units are linked together (c) perform similar functions for humans (d) are polymers whose units are linked by peptide bonds (e) all of these.

11. Which of the following would be made by the process of dehydration synthesis? (a) amino acids (b) polypeptides (c) fatty acids (d) glycerol (e) glucose.

12. Which of the following would be broken down by the process of hydrolysis? (a) glycogen (b) starch (c) triglycerides (d) enzymes (e) all of these.

13. Beginning with lipid as a substrate, which of the following would be the product of an enzyme reaction that carried out hydrolysis? (a) glycerol and fatty acids (b) glycogen (c) glucose (d) nucleic acids (e) polypeptides.

14. Unsaturated fatty acids (a) have double bonds between their carbon atoms (b) have nitrogen atoms in place of their amine groups (c) have amine groups instead of carboxyl groups (d) are linked to nucleotides instead of glycerol (e) are produced by dehydration synthesis.

15. If you read the words “partially hydrogenated vegetable oils” on a junk food label, what do those words indicate? (a) numerous peptide bonds (b) double bonds between fatty acid carbons (c) high cellulose content (d) low glycerol content (e) none of these.

16. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed nucleic acids? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

17. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed other enzymes? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

18. The Central Dogma states that in a cell, information “flows” from (a) DNA to protein to RNA (b) RNA to protein to DNA (c) protein to RNA to DNA (d) DNA to RNA to protein (e) none of these answers are correct.

19. Which of the following would you expect to be able to actually see in an electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell? (a) rough endoplasmic reticulum (b) fatty acids (c) peptide bonds (d) the citric acid cycle (e) enzymes.

20. In an electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify a mitochondrion, you would look for (a) a sausage-shaped body with internal folded membranes (b) a stack of flattened sacs (c) lines of double membranes with dark particles attached to them (d) a group of circular vesicles.

21. Which of the following would you expect to see in an electron micrograph of a plant cell, but not in an electron micrograph of an animal cell? (a) Golgi complex (b) chloroplast (c) nuclear envelope (d) endoplasmic reticulum (e) none of these.

22. If the fluid mosaic model accurately describes all cellular membranes, where might you expect to find transport proteins? (a) mitochondria (b) plasma membrane (c) Golgi apparatus (d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum (e) in all of these organelles.

23. If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a) membrane proteins to move around. (b) membrane proteins to remain fixed in place. (c) lipid molecules to occur in a single layer. (d) numerous lysosomes to be floating in the membrane.

24. If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a) glycoproteins to be on a membrane surface. (b) to find transport proteins in the membrane. (c) both saturated and unsaturated fatty acids to be in the lipid bilayer. (d) to find cholesterol in the lipid bilayer. (e) all of these.

25. When enzyme reactions are linked (a) the substrate of one enzyme is also the substrate for another. (b) both enzymes produce the same product. (c) the product of one reaction is a substrate for the next. (d) one enzyme carries out two different reactions.

26. Which of the following components of peanuts and Kellogg’s Nutri-Twists contain potential chemical energy that can be converted into ATP? (a) partially hydrogenated soybean oil. (b) starch. (c) protein. (d) all of these. (e) none of these.

27. Assuming your textbook and handout metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could you, personally, make from the ingredients in a Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist? (a) polypeptides (b) DNA (c) cell membrane (d) polysaccharides (e) all of these.

28. Assuming textbook and handout metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following ingredients in a Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist could you, personally, convert into useful energy by way of catabolic reactions? (a) tapioca starch (b) cream cheese solids (c) citric acid (d) oats (e) all of these.

29. According to the anabolic and catabolic summary diagrams in your textbook and handout, which of the following statements is true:

(a) Carbon from carbohydrates could end up in amino acids.

(b) Carbon from amino acids could end up in lipids.

(d) Carbon from amino acids could end up in carbohydrates.

(e) all of these.

30. If the diagrams in your textbook are correct, a carbon atom that is now part of polysaccharide in a grass seed could easily end up in (a) a dragonfly amino acid. (b) the lipid bilayer in a chloroplast. (c) a ground squirrel gene. (d) atmospheric CO₂. (e) any of these.

31. Which of the following ingredients of a Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist would be considered a vitamin or part of a vitamin? (a) niacinamide (b) diglycerides (c) sugar (d) monoglycerides (e) all of these.

32. Which of the following are products of citric acid cycle reactions? (a) amino acids (b) reduced and oxidized cytochromes (c) CO₂ and reduced hydrogen carriers (d) polypeptides (e) all of these.

33. In the citric acid cycle, (a) glucose is produced. (b) some end products are the same as the starting substrates. (c) carbon dioxide is fixed at several steps. (d) peptide bonds are formed. (e) all of these.

34. What role do cytochromes play in cellular respiration? (a) They carry out oxidation-reduction reactions (b) They are an essential part of oxidative phosphorylation. (c) They are essential to ATP synthesis. (d) all of these.

35. Which of the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) oxygen (b) CO₂ (c) ADP (d) glucose (e) all of these.

36. Which of the following is consumed during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) H₂O (b) ATP (c) glucose (d) all of these (e) none of these.

37. Which of the following occurs during the Calvin Cycle but not during the light reactions? (a) H₂O is split (b) CO₂ is fixed (c) ADP is converted to ATP (d) hydrogen carriers become oxidized (e) all of these.

38. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) are genetically equal (b) have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair.

39. Daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have only one member of each homologous pair (b) have only one member of each pair of alleles (c) have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) all of these (e) none of these.

40. How many amino acids would you expect to be present in the polypeptide resulting from expression of the gene ATACCGATTCAGCAT? (a) one (b) five (c) fifteen (d) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

41. Which of the following sequences would be a transcript from the DNA sequence AATGCTACG? (a) TTACGATGC (b) AAUGCTACG (c) AATGCTACG (d) UUACGAUGC (e) none of these.

42. Which of the following sequences would be considered a translation of some DNA sequence? (a) AATGCTACG (b) UUACGAUGC (c) rRNA (d) mRNA (e) ala-lys-met-val-glu.

43. How might you alter the frequency of the recessive seed color allele in a large garden of pea plants? (a) select for round seeds (b) cross axial flowered plants with terminal flowered plants (c) choose plants to cross based on stem length (d) any of these methods would work. (Pea genes on next page.)

44. What phenotypes must you count in order to calculate the frequency of the recessive seed color allele in your garden? (a) purple flowers (b) yellow seeds (c) green seeds (d) green pods (e) you can’t determine this frequency from data obtained by counting phenotypes. (Pea genes on next page.)

Here is some information about pea genes studied by Mendel:

R = round seed; r = wrinkled seed Y = yellow seed; y = green seed

P = purple flower; p = white flower I = inflated pod; i = constricted pod

G = green pod; g = yellow pod A = axial flower; a = terminal flower

S = long stem; s = short stem

Answer the following questions about this cross: rrYyPpIiGgAAss x RrYyPpIiggAass

NOTE: In the following questions you can assume complete dominance, and “kinds” means different combinations of alleles.

45. What do you know about the parents of the plant on the left? (a) They both had axial flowers. (b) One had long stems. (c) One had terminal flowers. (d) Both had white flowers. (e) You can’t answer this question from the information given.

46. What can you discover about the parents of the plant on the left by crossing each of them with plants homozygous recessive at all loci? (a) the kinds and proportions of gametes being made (b) the number of heterozygous loci (c) the number of homozygous loci (d) all of these (e) none of these.

47. What fraction of the offspring from these two plants will have wrinkled seeds, short stems, and yellow pods? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) you can’t answer this question from the information given.

48. If you knew only the phenotypes of the above plants, what kind of genotype should you use in a cross in order to determine which loci of each plant are homozygous dominant and which are heterozygous? (a) RrYyPpIiGgAaSs (b) RRYYPPIIGGAASS (c) rryyppiiggaass (d) any of these (e) none of these crosses will reveal the answer.

49. Which phenotypes do you know cannot be present in the offspring from these two plants? (a) green pods (b) terminal flowers (c) short stems (d) wrinkled seeds (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

50. Why do the alleles at these 7 loci assort independently? (a) They are linked. (b) They are on the same homologous pairs of chromosomes. (c) They are on sister chromatids. (d) Each locus is on a different pair of homologous chromosomes. (e) You can’t answer this question from the information given.

51. Given only the information above about these pea plants, how many different polypeptides should these plants build from the genetic information shown? (a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 12 (d) 13 (e) 28.

52. All members of the family Canidae (a) are in the same genus. (b) are in the same order. (c) are in the same class but in different orders. (d) are in the same order but in different classes.

53. Two species in the same order (a) must also be in the same family. (b) can be in the same genus. (c) can be in different classes. (d) must also have the same genus name. (e) none of these.

54. What can you assume about all members of the order Carnivora? (a) They possess homologous structures. (b) Some of their structures are homologous to structures in different orders. (c) One of the species of Carnivora exhibits considerable structural diversity. (d) all of these. (e) none of these.

55. If you found some rocks of Cambrian age, what kind of fossils would you expect to discover in these rocks? (a) trilobites. (b) members of the Carnivora. (c) dinosaurs (d) pre-human primates. (e) any of these.

56. If you found some rocks of Mesozoic age, what kind of fossils would you expect to discover in these rocks? (a) trilobites. (b) members of the Carnivora. (c) dinosaurs (d) pre-human primates. (e) any of these.

57. If you were a researcher whose specialty was the earliest land plants, you would probably go looking for rocks from the (a) Cambrian. (b) Ordovician. (c) Silurian or Devonian. (d) Permian. (e) Tertiary or Quaternary.

58. If you were a graduate student working on the evolution of cockroaches, you might go exploring for rocks of what age? (a) Triassic. (b) Jurassic. (c) Mesozoic. (d) Cenozoic. (e) any of these.

59. If you were a graduate student working on the evolution of cockroaches, what kind of evidence might you use in your research? (a) primary structure of proteins (b) nucleotide sequences (c) the structure of homologous parts in other insects (d) all of these (e) none of these.

60. According to the fossil record, what happened at the end of the Permian? (a) cockroaches appeared. (b) fish and amphibians first appeared. (c) most of the world’s species became extinct. (d) dinosaurs became extinct. (e) most of the animal phyla appeared.

61. If you were a scientist studying the fossil record, what kind of materials might you be working with? (a) bone fragments (b) burrows and tracks (c) shells (d) leaves (e) any of these.

62. If the fossil record is correct, there have been fish and fish-like organisms on Earth (a) for at least 400 million years. (b) for approximately 100 million years. (c) for no more than 230 million years. (d) at least since the Cambrian. (e) from the Pre-Cambrian until the Permian Extinctions.

63. If the fossil record is correct, which of the following processes occurred during the evolution of horses? (a) elongation of toes (b) loss of homologous structures (c) fusion of bones (d) all of these (e) none of these.

64. Which of the following processes evidently occurred during the evolution of birds’ wings but did not occur during the evolution of bats’ wings? (a) shortening of finger bones (b) loss of homologous structures (c) fusion of bones (d) all of these (e) none of these.

65. Fossils of a group of organisms that originally evolved on Pangaea might be found in (a) Europe (b) Kentucky (c) Brazil (d) Africa (e) any of these places.

66. The term “superfecundity” refers to (a) random genetic drift. (b) the limits placed on populations by environmental conditions. (c) production of offspring in excess of survival. (d) phenotypic variation. (e) changes in allele frequencies as a result of selection.

67. The term “Darwinian fitness” refers to (a) production of offspring in excess of survival. (b) relative reproductive output. (c) size and strength. (d) individual variation. (e) changes in allele frequencies as a result of selection.

68. Which of the following sources of data did Darwin use to infer the accumulation of adaptive traits within a population? (a) superfecundity (b) individual phenotypic variation (c) differences in reproductive output among offspring (d) all of these (e) none of these.

69. Which of the following data sources can be used to construct a phylogenetic hypothesis? (a) fossils (b) comparison of homologous structures (c) nucleotide sequences (d) amino acid sequences (e) all of these.

70. Which of the following data sources can be used to test a phylogenetic hypothesis? (a) fossils (b) comparison of homologous structures (c) nucleotide sequences (d) amino acid sequences (e) all of these.

71. Which of the following would be considered an essential part of the “modern synthesis”? (a) the fossil record of horses (b) the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (c) phenotypic variation (d) super-fecundity (e) the voyage of the Beagle.

72. Which of the following concepts can be truly understood only within the context of the “modern synthesis”? (a) random [genetic] drift (b) the founder effect (c) vicariance (d) mutations (e) all of these.

73. You have a very large healthy garden with many pea plants. In order for the seed color alleles in this garden to satisfy the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium conditions, you must (a) select for green seeds. (b) select against green seeds. (c) select for both seed color and pod color. (d) do nothing.

74. You pick a hundred pea plants from your very large healthy garden and discover that only one of them has white flowers and the rest have purple flowers. How many of these purple-flowered plants probably carry a hidden recessive allele for white flowers? (a) 1 (b) 18 (c) 81 (d) all of them (e) none of them.

75. Out of that same batch of plants you just picked, how many of the purple-flowered plants would be true-breeding for purple flower color? (a) 1 (b) 18 (c) 81 (d) 49 (e) all of them.

76. Your next door neighbor has just planted a very large pea plant garden, but most of her plants produce white flowers. What process best describes what’s likely to happen to these two gardens over the next few years if both you and your neighbor do nothing but watch them? (a) random drift (b) gene flow (c) natural selection (d) mutation (e) non-random mating.

77. You and your neighbor decide that you both want only true-breeding purple-flowered plants in your garden. What evolutionary process is most likely to frustrate your efforts? (a) random drift (b) gene flow (c) natural selection (d) mutation (e) non-random mating.

78. What property or trait of your garden peas tells you they are the same species as the peas in your neighbor’s garden? (a) they are structurally very similar (b) there are flowers of the same color in both gardens (c) your pea plants freely interbreed with your neighbor’s (d) both your peas and your neighbor’s peas evolved from a common ancestor.

79. Which of the following would be considered a post-zygotic barrier that would split the pea gene pool so that your peas are isolated from your neighbor’s? (a) You each breed a different flower color plant at every generation. (b) You breed your peas so that the frequency of the r allele = 0.4 (c) Your neighbor gives you all her wrinkled peas and you plant them in your garden. (d) You give all the seeds from your short-stemmed, axial-flowered, plants to your neighbor and she plants them in her garden.

80. Which of the answers to question #79 provide the kind of observations that Darwin used to support his theories of evolution? (a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d (e) all of them.

81. In question #79, how would you know when you’d made the frequency of the r allele = 0.4? (a) Half your plants would always have wrinkled seeds. (b) Year after year, nearly 85% of your plants have round seeds. (c) 40% of your plants have wrinkled seeds. (d) 40% of your plants have round seeds. (e) You can’t determine whether you are successful in this evolutionary experiment.

82. What is the original source of the r allele in your peas? (a) natural selection (b) non-random mating (c) mutation (d) random drift (e) gene flow.

83. Approximately what fraction of known species are insects? (a) 1/10 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4.

84. Approximately how many species of plants are known? (a) 1,000 (b) 57,700 (c) 69,000 (d) 248,000 (e) 751,000.

85. What is the best explanation for the distribution of ensatina salamander subspecies in California? (a) allopatric speciation (b) geographic distance and natural selection (c) random drift (d) gene flow (e) mutations.

86. You are a scientist who has successfully cloned humans in order to supply yourself with stem cells for research. At what age will you be able to harvest the inner cell mass from your embryos? (a) a few hours old (b) 6 or 7 days old (c) several weeks (d) not until the testes or ovaries develop.

87. You are a scientist who has successfully cloned humans in order to supply yourself with stem cells for research. What do you hope to actually do with the cells you obtain from the inner cell mass? (a) make new human beings (b) use them in in vitro fertilization treatments for infertile couples (c) provide cell cultures that can differentiate into various tissues (d) all of these.

88. Lewis Thomas defines “halfway [medical] technology” as (a) supportive care for the terminally ill. (b) expensive procedures such as heart transplants. (c) vaccines. (d) all of these. (e) none of these.

89. Examples of what Thomas considers “genuinely decisive technology” are (a) supportive care for the terminally ill. (b) expensive procedures such as heart transplants. (c) vaccines and antibiotics. (d) the treatment of certain disorders with hormones. (e) all of these.

90. Examples of what Thomas considers “nontechnology” include (a) supportive care for the terminally ill. (b) expensive procedures such as heart transplants. (c) vaccines. (d) the treatment of certain disorders with hormones. (e) all of these.

91. According to Thomas, by far the most expensive medical technology is (a) genuinely decisive technology (b) halfway technology (c) nontechnology.

92. Thomas’ analogy of the earth as a cell is based on (a) his reductionist approach to science (b) the large number of polymers in cells (c) the complex organization and many interactions that occur between both parts of earth and parts of cells (d) the fact that both are made primarily of C, H, and O (e) all of these.

93. According to Thomas, science achieves a collective power (a) in approximately the same manner as termites (b) from a reductionist approach to problems (c) from an understanding of the way pheromones work (d) from a real knowledge of most microbes (e) from its knowledge of DNA.

94. According to Thomas, the behavior of social insects (a) is rigidly stereotyped. (b) serves as a source of parables for humans. (c) has been used to teach us virtues such as altruism and patience. (d) can vary depending on how many individuals are present. (e) all of these.

95. According to Thomas, developments in molecular biology (a) show mitochondrial DNA to be distinctly different from eukaryotic nuclear DNA. (b) suggest that some organelles are actually “enslaved creatures” of different evolutionary origin from the cells in they reside. (c) suggest that organisms are actually just homes for symbiotic organelles. (d) all of these.

96. According to Thomas, current treatments for which of the following diseases illustrate best the impact of scientific research and genuinely decisive technology on the field of medicine? (a) heart disease (b) cancer (c) polio and typhoid fever (d) kidney disease [chronic glomerulonephritis] (e) all of these.

97. According to Thomas, (a) our mechanisms for killing bacteria are often responsible for disease. (b) because of the lipopolysaccharide endotoxin in their cell walls, gram-negative bacteria are ignored by our tissues. (c) endotoxin can cure bacterial infections. (d) all of these.

98. According to Thomas, (a) language is the one trait that separates us from other species. (b) our ability to use language probably has a genetic basis. (c) language evolves on its own. (d) different languages can exist side by side for centuries without influencing one another. (e) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-04-05 FINAL EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, clicker pad number, and the words “BS101 Final Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and pad number. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 12:00. Choose the BEST answer.

1. Rejection of a scientific null hypothesis means (a) the hypothesis was not testable (b) the hypothesis was true (c) there was no control group in the experiment (d) there was a very low probability that the hypothesis was true (e) there was no difference between control and experimental groups.

2. Failure to reject a scientific null hypothesis means (a) the hypothesis was not testable (b) the hypothesis was false (c) there was no control group in the experiment (d) there was an observable difference between the control and experimental group (e) there was a high probability that the hypothesis was true.

3. General ideas about nature can become theories when scientists (a) routinely reject scientific hypotheses based on these ideas (b) use a reductionist approach in testing these ideas (c) ask ultimate questions based on such ideas (d) commonly fail to reject testable hypotheses based on the ideas.

4. Statistical methods typically tell you (a) what kind of a question you have written (b) whether a theory is true (c) the probability of obtaining your observed results if your prediction about how the universe works is true (d) the probability that your experiment does not have a control group (e) none of these answers are correct.

5. Reductionists approach scientific problems by (a) constructing a theory (b) looking for emergent properties (c) looking for answers to ultimate questions (d) breaking the problem down into smaller ones (e) designing experiments without a control group.

6. What do you know about the cells of your three favorite campus plants? (a) They form peptide bonds. (b) They carry out hydrolysis reactions. (c) They carry out dehydration synthesis. (d) They contain steroids and surface glycoproteins. (e) all of these.

7. What do you know about the bacteria that live on the underside of the leaves of your three favorite campus plants? (a) They carry out dehydration synthesis. (b) Their proteins exhibit tertiary structure. (c) They can hydrolyze polysaccharides. (d) They contain DNA. (e) all of these.

8. In general, what should the average person know about the Galapagos finches? (a) They became extinct at the end of the Permian. (b) They exhibit diverse and variable bill structures related to food sources and availability. (c) Most are brightly colored. (d) all of these.

11. If the fluid mosaic model accurately describes all cellular membranes, where might you expect to find transport proteins? (a) mitochondria (b) plasma membrane (c) Golgi apparatus (d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum (e) in all of these organelles.

12. If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a) glycoproteins to be on a membrane surface. (b) to find transport proteins in the membrane. (c) both saturated and unsaturated fatty acids to be in the lipid bilayer. (d) to find cholesterol in the lipid bilayer. (e) all of these.

14. The primary structure of soybean protein found in junk food would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids (b) the sequence of its nucleotides (c) the folding of its polypeptides (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are joined together (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

15. In an electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify a mitochondrion, you would look for (a) a sausage-shaped body with internal folded membranes (b) a stack of flattened sacs (c) lines of double membranes with dark particles attached to them (d) a group of circular vesicles.

16. Which of the following would you expect to see in an electron micrograph of a plant cell, but not in an electron micrograph of an animal cell? (a) Golgi complex (b) chloroplast (c) nuclear envelope (d) endoplasmic reticulum (e) none of these.

17. Beginning with lipid as a substrate, which of the following would be the product of an enzyme reaction that carried out hydrolysis? (a) glycerol and fatty acids (b) glycogen (c) glucose (d) nucleic acids (e) polypeptides.

18. CATTGCGCAAT is a piece of genetic information. Which of the following would be the complementary strand of DNA that satisfies the base pairing rules? (a) CATTGCGCAAT (b) GTAACGCGTTA (c) CTTAGCGCAAT (d) TTACAAGTTGC (e) any of these.

19. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair (b) have half many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair (e) enter G2 before they enter S.

20. Daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair (b) have as many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair (d) enter G1 before they enter M.

21. Which of the following crosses will produce more genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a) AaBb x AaBb (b) aabb x Aabb (c) AABB x aabb (d) AAbb x AAbb (e) both b and c.

22. Which of the crosses in the previous question would you expect to produce less genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a) b (b) both a and d (c) both b and c (d) c (e) none of them.

NOTE: In the following three questions, “kinds” means different combinations of alleles.

23. How many different kinds of gametes would DdMmRrQq be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

24. Which of the following would be one of the gametes made by the individual in the previous question? (a) DMrq (b) DdMmRrQq (c) dmrq (d) dMmQq (e) any of these.

25. What proportion of the gametes made by the individual in the last two questions would be DMRq? (a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/16 (e) you can’t determine this answer from the information given.

26. If an organism has the following homologous pair of chromosomes: ADTG and adTg, then which of the following processes would produce gametes with AdTg or aDTG? (a) synapsis (b) non-disjunction (c) crossing over (d) base pairing (e) any of these.

27. If the individual in question #26 has the following homologous pair of chromosomes: ADTG and adTg, then which of the following individuals would you cross it with to determine whether it actually had produced gametes with AdTg or aDTG? (a) aaddttgg (b) AADDTTGG (c) AaDdTTGG (d) any of these (e) you can’t tell from the information given.

For the following few questions, let us consider the traits Mendel used in studying his pea plants. The traits are:

Tall stem = T; dwarf stem = t Axial flower = A; terminal flower = a

Purple flower = P; white flower = p Inflated pod = I; constricted pod = i

Green pod = G; yellow pod = g Round seed = R; wrinkled seed = r

Yellow seed = Y; green seed = y

28. Which of the following crosses might Mendel have done to demonstrate segregation of alleles? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(e) none of these.

29. If he’d known the breeding history of all his plants, which of the following crosses might Mendel have done to demonstrate independent assortment?

(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy

(e) any of these.

The next few questions concern the cross: ttAaPpIiggRryy (Plant #1) x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (Plant #2).

30. If you cross Plant #1 and Plant #2, what fraction of the offspring will have purple flowers? (a) zero (b)1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them.

31. If you cross Plant #1 and Plant #2, what fraction of the offspring will have both purple flowers and yellow pods? (a) zero (b) 1/8 (c) 1/4 (d) 3/4 (e) 3/8.

32. Both parents of Plant #1 must have (a) been tall (b) been dwarf (c) had yellow seeds (d) had axial flowers (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

33. How many different phenotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing? (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64 (e) 128.

34. In humans and fruit flies, if the H locus is found on the X chromosome, and the H allele is completely dominant over the h allele, then (a) females can be homozygous recessive (b) males can be heterozygous (c) males can express the dominant allele but not the recessive allele (d) both sexes can be heterozygous (e) all of these.

35. In human beings, which of the following genetic conditions result from non-disjunction of chromosome #21? (a) Down syndrome (b) Klinefelter syndrome (c) XYY syndrome (d) Woody Guthrie disease (e) muscular dystrophy.

36. In human beings, which of the following genetic conditions is associated with resistance to malaria? (a) Down syndrome (b) sickle cell trait (c) cystic fibrosis (d) Huntington’s disease (e) muscular dystrophy.

37. The Darwinian principles state that (a) all individuals that are produced actually survive. (b) no individuals of a particular phenotype survive. (c) more individuals are produced than can survive in nature. (d) all phenotypes are equally successful. (e) selection is mainly against homozygous recessives.

38. The Darwinian principles state that (a) natural populations consist of identical individuals. (b) gene pools consist of identical individuals. (c) allele frequencies remain stable for long periods in natural populations. (d) natural populations of a species exhibit phenotypic variation (e) all phenotypes are equally successful.

39. The Darwinian principles state that (a) in nature some variants within a species are more likely than others to reproduce successfully. (b) in nature, all variants within a species are equally likely to reproduce. (c) all phenotypic variants are equally likely to survive in nature. (d) all genotypes are equally likely to survive. (e) gene pools are split by selection against homozygous recessives.

40. How could you test a phylogenetic hypothesis regarding members of the Euphorbaceae? (a) Use their DNA to construct a cladogram. (b) Use some homologous protein to construct a cladogram. (c) Dissect all the species and discover some more structural characters used in a new cladogram. (d) Find some new species of euphorbs to include in the analysis. (e) all of these.

41. In plants, the best evidence for establishing that two species represent convergence instead of being related includes (a) flower structure (b) habitat (c) geographical distribution (d) fossil record (e) growth habit.

42. Homologous structures presumably (a) have the same evolutionary origin. (b) have the same function. (c) have different evolutionary origins. (d) have different functions. (e) Any of these answers could be true depending on the organisms involved.

43. Evidence used to establish homology of vertebrate appendages is derived primarily from (a) radio-isotope dating of Permian-age rocks. (b) comparative studies of embryological development. (c) use of the appendages as indicated by Cretaceous and Tertiary fossils. (d) phylogenies based on amino acid sequences of certain proteins. (e) studies of gene frequency changes in populations undergoing selection.

44. According to the fossil record, the Cambrian period (a) ended with the extinction of the dinosaurs. (b) began with the extinction of the dinosaurs. (c) was the time most modern animal phyla appeared on Earth. (d) was the time mammals first appeared on Earth. (e) was the time when the first land vertebrates appeared on Earth.

45. According to the fossil record, what evidently happened at the end of the Permian? (a) Most of the modern animal phyla first appeared. (b) The dinosaurs became extinct. (c) Vast numbers of species became extinct. (d) Flowering plants appeared. (e) There was a great increase in the diversity of mammals, birds, and pollinating insects.

46. If the frequency of a recessive phenotype in a population is 0.25, what is the expected frequency of the dominant allele for that same trait? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) 1.00.

47. If the frequency of the dominant phenotype in a population is 0.51, what is the expected frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.2 (b) 0.7 (c) 0.49 (d) zero (e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

48. If you know that the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is 0.6, what is the expected frequency of the dominant phenotype for that same trait? (a) 0.6 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.36 (d) 0.64 (e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

49. In a breeding population where you know for certain that only 1% of the individuals are true breeding dominant phenotypes, what would you predict is the frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.99 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.18 (d) 0.1 (e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

50. An example of a temporal pre-zygotic isolating mechanism would be (a) rise of a mountain range. (b) flowering at different seasons. (c) barriers preventing sperm from penetrating an egg membrane. (d) infertile hybrids. (e) any of these.

51. If you grow the bacterium Escherichia coli (E. coli) in a culture medium without the sugar lactose, then E. coli (a) expresses the lactase gene. (b) expresses a gene for a protein that inhibits lactase production. (c) transcribes the lactase gene but doesn’t translate it. (d) translates the lactase gene but doesn’t transcribe it. (e) None of these answers are correct.

52. Examples of protistan genera that are of major economic importance include (a) Paramecium (b) heliozoans (c) Rickettsia (d) Plasmodium (e) all of these.

53. Study of the lac operon has revealed that (a) genes may be arranged in groups with related functions. (b) cells may make repressor proteins. (c) the interactions between repressor proteins and substrates differ according to regulatory mechanisms. (d) All of these answers are correct (e) None of these answers are correct.

54. Heterotrophic protistans should (a) carry out photosynthesis (b) be transmitted to humans by lice (c) require their energy in the form of complex molecules (d) contain chloroplasts (e) all of these.

55. Diatoms are (a) photosynthetic protists (b) members of Archaea (c) transmitted to humans by lice (d) transmitted to humans by mosquitoes (e) members of Eubacteria.

56. Sciurus carolinensis is a member of (a) Sciuridae (b) Eukarya (c) Chordata (d) the same phylum as fish (e) all of these.

57. What do you know about members of the animal family Sciuridae? (a) They are all in the same genus. (b) They are all in different genera. (c) They are all in the same order. (d) They are all in different orders. (e) Some, but not all, are in the same order.

58. Two species in the same order (a) must also be in the same family. (b) can be in the same genus. (c) can be in different classes. (d) must also have the same genus name. (e) none of these.

59. Which of the following pairs of species do you know are in the same family and the same order? (a) Poa alpina and Tenebrio molitor (b) Agropyron desertorum and Agropyron yukonense (c) Mimus polyglottis and Corvus brachyrhynchos (d) Asio otis and Otis asio (e) none of these.

60. If you used the terms Hymenolepis nana and Hymenolepis dimnuta, you would be communicating information about (a) a presumed relationship. (b) synapomorphic character states. (c) a presumed monophyletic group. (d) the literary history of names. (e) All of these.

61. Two species that are in the same subphylum must also be (a) in the same domain. (b) in the same class. (c) in the same order. (d) in different phyla. (e) all of these.

62. Two species that are in different orders can also be (a) in the same domain. (b) in different families. (c) in different subphyla. (d) in the same subphylum. (e) all of these.

63. Which of the following structures would you expect to find inside a prokaryote but not inside a member of the domain Eukarya? (a) ribosomes (b) DNA (c) mitochondria (d) all of these (e) none of these.

64. Which of the following structures would you expect to find inside both a member of the genus Rickettsia and a member of the subphylum Vertebrata? (a) ribosomes (b) DNA (c) mitochondria (d) all of these (e) none of these.

65. What do you know about methanogens and thermophiles? (a) They are members of Eukarya. (b) They occur in most processed foods. (c) They cause plague. (d) They are heterotrophic. (e) None of these answers is correct.

66. Which of the following would you expect to find in gram-negative bacteria but not in gram-positive bacteria? (a) a thick layer of lipopolysaccharide (b) a flagellum (c) a thick layer of peptidoglycan (d) a single circular loop of DNA (e) all of these.

67. What do you know about spirochaetes? (a) They have a flagellum. (b) Some of them cause diseases in humans. (c) They are rod-shaped and occur in chains. (d) They tend to live in extreme environments. (e) all of these.

68. What do you know about rickettsias? (a) They have a flagellum. (b) Some of them cause diseases in humans. (c) They are rod-shaped and occur in chains. (d) They tend to live in extreme environments. (e) all of these.

In the following questions, match the human disease with the genus names of the causative organisms:

69. Syphilis a. Helicobacter

70. Typhus b. Bacillus

71. Malaria c. Vibrio

72. Ulcers d. Plasmodium

73. Plague e. Rickettsia

74. Typhoid a. Salmonella

75. Cholera b. Yersinia

76. Anthrax c. Treponema

77. Lyme disease d. Borrelia

78. Leprosy e. Mycobacterium

79. If you collected sedimentary rocks of Permian age, you would expect to find fossils of (a) flowering plants (b) dinosaurs (c) birds (d) amphibians (e) all of these.

80. If you collected sedimentary rocks of Tertiary age, you would expect to find fossils of (a) trilobites (b) placoderms (c) ostracoderms (d) mammoths (e) any of these.

81. If you collected sedimentary rocks of Ordovician age, you would expect to find fossils of (a) birds (b) insects (c) ostracoderms (d) mammoths (e) any of these.

82. According to available evidence, mass extinctions occurred (a) at the end of the Paleozoic. (b) last year. (c) at the end of the Mesozoic. (d) at the end of the Cambrian. (e) at all of these times.

83. Which of the following groups would be represented in Paleozoic fossils but not in Mesozoic fossils? (a) dinosaurs (b) flowering plants (c) trilobites (d) mammals (e) birds.

84. Which of the following groups would be prominent among Mesozoic fossils but not among Paleozoic fossils? (a) dinosaurs (b) flowering plants (c) trilobites (d) mammals (e) birds.

85. Which of the following processes do scientists either know or believe have contributed to the present distribution and diversity of living organisms on Earth? (a) meteors (b) fire (c) continental drift (d) evolution (e) all of these.

86. Which of the following would you expect to be represented in the fossil record? (a) protists (b) prokaryotes (c) mammals (d) flowering plants (e) all of these.

87. Which of the following organisms undergo zygotic meiosis? (a) flowering plants (b) humans (c) malarial parasites (d) Yersinia pestis (e) all of these.

88. Which of the following disease-causing organisms are transmitted by insects? (a) Helicobacter pylori (b) Plasmodium species (c) Bacillus anthracis (d) Vibrio cholerae (e) all of these.

89. During the life cycle of malarial parasites, which of the following stages undergo syngamy? (a) sporozoites (b) merozoites (c) spores (d) zygotes (e) gametes.

90. During the life cycle of malarial parasites, which of the following stages undergo asexual reproduction? (a) merozoites (b) gametocytes (c) sporozoites (d) zygotes (e) none of these.

91. During the life cycle of malarial parasites, which of the following stages are haploid? (a) sporo- zoites (b) merozoites (c) gametocytes (d) all of these (e) none of these.

92. Where would you expect to find foraminiferans? (a) in any local lake or pond (b) inside a mosquito (c) in fossil deposits of marine origin (d) inside a louse (e) in any of these places.

93. During an algal life cycle, which of the following stages would be a product of syngamy? (a) gametes (b) zygospores (c) merozoites (d) gametocytes (e) gametophytes.

94. During the life cycle of a flowering plant, which of the following stages would be haploid? (a) sporophyte (b) merozoite (c) zygotes (d) gametophytes (e) none of these.

95. The endosymbiont theory of modern eukaryotic cell origin proposes that (a) mitochondria are derived from bacteria (b) chloroplasts are derived from foraminiferans (c) nuclear envelopes are constructed according to the fluid mosaic model (d) Golgi bodies are derived from chloroplasts (e) all of these events are possible.

96. Evidence to support the endosymbiont theory of modern eukaryotic cell origin comes mainly from the (a) structure of diatoms. (b) biochemistry of chloroplasts. (c) function of plasma membrane. (d) life cycle of malarial parasites. (e) structure of mitochondria.

97. How does one catch cholera? (a) through the bites of lice (b) through fecal contamination (c) by the bite of a mosquito (d) through the bite of fleas (e) by direct contact with infected individuals.

98. How does one catch plague? (a) through the bites of lice (b) through fecal contamination (c) by the bite of a mosquito (d) through the bite of fleas (e) by direct contact with infected individuals.

99. How does one contract leprosy? (a) through the bites of lice (b) through fecal contamination (c) by the bite of a mosquito (d) through the bite of fleas (e) by direct contact with infected individuals.

100. How does one contract typhus? (a) through the bites of lice (b) through fecal contamination (c) by the bite of a mosquito (d) through the bite of fleas (e) by direct contact with infected individuals.

Bios 101 Janovy I-99-00 FIRST EXAM

3. A scientific null hypothesis is (a) a true statement (b) a false statement (c) an assertion of no difference (d) an untestable assertion (e) all of these.

4. A hypothesis is or can be (a) a test of a theory (b) a prediction (c) a tool used in scientific investigation (d) false (e) all of these.

5. In a forest community, a northern hawk owl could be viewed in terms of its (a) DNA (b) role in the community (c) evolutionary history (d) structure and color (e) all of these.

6. What do you know about the name Surnia ulula (Linné)? (a) It applies to an organism Linnaeus described. (b) The description was probably published in 1758. (c) It is the name of a species. (d) It acquired its DNA from another S. ulula. (d) all of these.

7. Ginkgo biloba Linnaeus, 1758 is (a) the name of a tree (b) an example of a known and named species (c) a species that has probably been on earth for at least 100 million years (d) the name of an individual that could live 1000 years (e) all of these.

8. A biologist who looks at campus vegetation is able to “see” (a) cells (b) DNA (c) processes of nutrient flow (d) ecological relationships (e) all of these.

9. Cellular respiration and photosynthesis are processes (a) that biologists see in ecosystems (b) by which energy moves through an ecosystem (c) by which nutrients are made and move through an ecosystem (d) that occur in cells (e) all of these.

10. A bird and a butterfly seeking nectar from the same flower represent (a) competition (b) energy flow (c) three species, only some of which may be known to science (d) three different sets of DNA [genetic information] (e) all of these.

11. A butterfly taking nectar from a flower illustrates (a) energy flow in an ecosystem (b) nutrient cycling in an ecosystem (c) the role of a herbivore in an ecosystem (d) at least one heterotrophic organism (e) all of these.

12. A cladogram is (a) a diagram of energy flow (b) a diagram of nutrient flow through an ecosystem (c) a phylogenetic hypothesis (d) a process by which autotrophic organisms build molecules (e) none of these.

13. A phylogenetic hypothesis is (a) an assertion about evolutionary relationships (b) an assertion about heterotrophic organisms’ role in an ecosystem (c) generally true (d) untestable (e) all of these.

14. In biology, taxonomic schemes are (a) used to classify organisms (b) hierarchical (c) nested (d) all of these.

15. Approximately how many species of beetles are known to science? (a) 10,000 (b) several million (c) 25,000 (d) 250,000+ (e) only a few.

16. Which of the following are found in Eukarya but not in Archaea? (a) DNA (b) cell membranes (c) nuclear envelope (d) ability to survive in extreme environments.

17. Which of the following are likely to have cell membranes made according to the fluid mosaic model? (a) you (b) Ginkgo biloba (c) the northern hawk owl (d) a tapeworm in your dog (e) all of these.

18. Which of the following kinds of organisms are most likely to obtain energy only from organic molecules such as glucose? (a) Archaea (b) green plants (c) you and owls (d) all of these (e) none of these.

19. Glucose is (a) an amino acid (b) a 6-carbon sugar (c) a peptidoglycan (d) a lipid (e) a source of nitrogen for Archaea.

20. Which of the following are most likely to require their nitrogen in the form of a mixture of amino acids? (a) Archaea (b) green plants (c) you and owls (d) all of these (e) none of these.

21. Where would you expect to find members of the Archaea? (a) in your intestine (b) on the sidewalk (c) in some extreme environment such as a hot spring (d) all of these (e) none of these places.

22. What would you expect to find in an nucleoid? (a) lipids with branched carbon chains (b) DNA (c) peptidoglycans (d) fluid mosaic-type membranes (e) none of these.

23. Where would you expect to find a nucleoid? (a) in intestinal bacteria (b) inside a Ginkgo biloba cell (c) inside a dog’s cell (d) in all of these places (e) in none of these places.

24. Eukaryotic organisms are likely to have (a) mitochondria (b) nuclear envelope (c) lysosomes (d) Golgi apparatus (e) all of these.

25. If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a) membrane proteins to move around (b) membrane proteins to remain fixed in place (c) lipid molecules to occur in a single layer (d) numerous nucleoids to be floating in the membrane.

26. You would expect to find membranes built according to the fluid mosaic design in (a) nuclear envelope (b) mitochondria (c) Golgi apparatus (d) endoplasmic reticulum (e) all of these.

27. Which of the following could be considered “compartments” in a cell? (a) mitochondria (b) vacuole (c) lysosome (d) peroxisome (e) all of these.

28. Which of the following could be considered organelles in eukaryotic cells? (a) mitochondria (b) flagellum (c) Golgi apparatus (d) chloroplast (e) all of these.

29. Which of the following function primarily to “package” cell products such as proteins? (a) lysosome (b) Golgi apparatus (c) mitochondria (d) chloroplast (e) nuclear envelope.

30. Which of the following are most likely to contain hydrolytic enzymes? (a) mitochondria (b) cell wall (c) chloroplasts (d) lysosome (e) nuclear envelope.

31. A hydrolytic enzyme is (a) a protein (b) a product of gene expression (c) a molecule that catalyzes a particular chemical reaction (d) all of these.

32. In a eukaryotic cell, where is the main site of protein synthesis? (a) mitochondria (b) rough endoplasmic reticulum (c) Golgi apparatus (d) lysosome (e) chloroplast.

33. During the process of differentiation, eukaryotic cells with identical genetic makeup usually (a) start making new kinds of proteins (b) acquire new functions (c) stop making some kinds of protein (d) all of these.

34. In theories of the symbiotic origin of eukaryotic cells, which of the following would be considered degenerate symbionts? (a) lysosomes (b) chloroplasts and mitochondria (c) endoplasmic reticulum (d) Golgi apparatus (e) all of these.

35. Which of the following might you expect to see in the paintings of Charles Rain? (a) members of the genus Rubus (b) scarab beetles (c) lepidopterans on their host plant (d) planorbid snails (e) all of these.

36. Which of the following might you expect to see in Cro-Magnon paintings in Altamira? (a) scarab beetles (b) northern hawk owls (c) horses (d) Monarch butterflies (e) all of these.

37. What biological phenomenon was Frederick Remington able to see and record that most others could not? (a) the dependence of lepidopterans on particular host plants (b) high speed action by large mammals (c) energy flow in forest ecosystems (d) the role of actin and myosin in muscle contraction.

38. What does a Deborah Butterfield sculpture have in common with extracted DNA? (a) both are shaped like a double helix (b) both contain the “essence” of their subjects (c) both are made of materials that either were or are living (d) neither has much commercial value (e) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-04-05 SECOND EXAM

7. Thymine, adenine, cytosine, and guanine are (a) carbohydrates (b) lipids (c) purines and pyrimidines (d) proteins (e) products of the photosynthesis light reactions.

8. During which of the following cell cycle phases would thymine be using in the construction of a nucleotide polymer? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) any of these phases.

9. CATTGCGCAAT is a piece of genetic information. Which of the following would be the complementary strand of DNA that satisfies the base pairing rules? (a) CATTGCGCAAT (b) GTAACGCGTTA (c) CTTAGCGCAAT (d) TTACAAGTTGC (e) any of these.

10. In the cell cycle, what happens during M? (a) chromosomes separate and the cell divides (b) DNA is synthesized (c) nothing (d) the cell differentiates into an embryonic stem cell.

11. In the cell cycle, what happens during S? (a) chromosomes separate and the cell divides (b) DNA is synthesized (c) nothing (d) the cell differentiates into an embryonic stem cell (e) the chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies.

12. If a mutation is a mistake in DNA synthesis that can be passed on to future generations, during which cell cycle phase must that mistake occur? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) any of these phases.

13. During prophase (a) chromosomes separate (b) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) the cell actually divides into two.

14. During metaphase (a) chromosomes separate (b) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) the cell actually divides into two.

15. During anaphase (a) chromosomes separate (b) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) the cell actually divides into two.

16. During cytokinesis (a) chromosomes separate (b) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) the cell actually divides into two.

17. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) are genetically equal (b) have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair.

18. Daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have only one member of each homologous pair (b) have only one member of each pair of alleles (c) have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) all of these (e) none of these.

19. Which of the following crosses will produce more genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a) aa x aa (b) aa x Aa (c) Aa x Aa (d) AA x AA (e) none of these.

20. Which of the crosses in question #19 would you expect to be “true breeding”? (a) b (b) a and d (c) b and c (d) c (e) all of them.

21. Which of the crosses in question #19 would you expect to produce less genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a) b (b) a and d (c) b and c (d) c (e) none of them.

NOTE: In the following four questions, “kinds” means different combinations of alleles.

22. How many different kinds of gametes would AaBbRr be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

23. Which of the following would be one of the gametes made by the individual in question #22? (a) aabbrr (c) AAb (c) abr (d) aRr (e) none of these.

24. How many different kinds of gametes would AaDdGg be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

25. Which of the following could be a gamete made by the individual in question #24? (a) adg (b) ADG (c) adG (d) AdG (e) any of these.

26. If the individual referred to in both question #22 and question #24 is actually the same individual organism, then what do you know about the species to which this individual belongs? (a) it has at least 3 different homologous pairs of chromosomes (b) it can make at least 32 different kinds of gametes (c) the A and G loci are linked (d) all of these (e) none of these.

27. Which of the following processes is responsible for the genetic diversity seen in offspring? (a) independent assortment (b) crossing over (c) mutation (d) all of these (e) none of these.

For the following questions, let us consider the traits Mendel used in studying his pea plants. The traits are:

Tall stem = T; dwarf stem = t

Axial flower = A; terminal flower = a

Purple flower = P; white flower = p

Inflated pod = I; constricted pod = i

Green pod = G; yellow pod = g

Round seed = R; wrinkled seed = r

Yellow seed = Y; green seed = y

28. Which of the following crosses will produce the most genetic diversity? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

29. Which of the following crosses will produce the least genetic diversity? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

30. Which of the following crosses might Mendel have done to demonstrate segregation of alleles? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

31. Which of the following crosses might Mendel have done to demonstrate independent assortment? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

The rest of the questions concern the cross: ttAaPpIiggRryy (Plant #1) x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (Plant #2).

32. How many kinds of gametes can Plant #1 make? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32 (e) 128.

33. How many kinds of gametes can Plant #2 make? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 64 (e) 128.

34. Which of the following plants would you use in a breeding experiment to check your answers to questions #32 and #33? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) ttaappiiggrryy.

Continue with the cross: ttAaPpIiggRryy (Plant #1) x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (Plant #2).

35. If you cross Plant #1 and Plant #2, what fraction of the offspring will have white flowers? (a) zero (b)1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them.

36. If you cross Plant #1 and Plant #2, what fraction of the offspring will have both white flowers and green pods? (a) zero (b) 1/8 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/5 (e) 3/4.

37. Both parents of Plant #1 could have had (a) purple flowers (b) white flowers (c) yellow pods (d) any of these (e) none of these.

38. Both parents of Plant #1 must have (a) been tall (b) been dwarf (c) had yellow seeds (d) had axial flowers (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

39. At how many of the loci in Plants #1 and #2 would alleles assort independently from one another? (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) all of them (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

40. If you allowed Plant #1 to self fertilize (or cross with another genetically equal plant), what fraction of the seeds would grow into a dwarf plant? (a) zero (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them.

41. How many loci are represented by the genotype ttAaPpIiggRryy? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 7 (e) 14.

42. How many homologous pairs are represented by the genotype ttAaPpIiggRryy? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 7 (e) 14.

43. How many phenotypes are represented by the genotype ttAaPpIiggRryy? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 7 (e) 14.

44. How many different genotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing? (a) 6 (b) 54 (c) 108 (d) 324 (e) 648.

45. How many different phenotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing? (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64 (e) 128.

46. If you started a garden by allowing Plant #1 to self fertilize and planting the seeds, which of the following traits would breed true? (a) flower color (b) flower position (c) height (d) seed shape (e) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-99-00 SECOND EXAM

1. In a frequency distribution describing any biological phenomenon, what is the dependent variable usually plotted on the Y (vertical) axis? (a) numbers of individuals with a particular measurable characteristic (b) categories into which individuals are placed (c) kinds of cells which carry out the Krebs cycle (d) rate at which ATP is formed in a cell (e) number of different reactions in a metabolic pathway.

2. Which of the following is most likely the product of a dehydration synthesis (condensation) reaction? (a) glucose (b) cellulose (c) an amino acid (d) adenine (e) thymine.

3. Which of the following is most likely the product of a hydrolytic reaction? (a) DNA (b) protein (c) cellulose (d) fatty acid (e) lipid.

4. In a cell, which of the following reactions are likely to be carried out by an enzyme? (a) oxidation (b) reduction (c) hydrolysis (d) all of these (e) none of these.

5. In a cell, which of the following would most likely be a substrate for a hydrolytic enzyme? (a) glucose (b) polypeptide (c) glycerol (d) a fatty acid (e) an amino acid.

6. What is probably the first step in digesting “soy protein isolate”? (a) oxidation (b) reduction (c) dehydration synthesis (d) hydrolysis (e) post-transcriptional processing.

7. A peptide bond occurs between (a) glycerol and a fatty acid (b) nucleotides in DNA (c) amino acids in a protein (d) cytochromes and electrons (e) all of these.

8. Which of the following ingredients of a Dolly Madison Fruit Pie would be considered a vitamin or part of a vitamin? (a) niacin (b) diglycerides (c) sugar (d) monoglycerides (e) all of these.

9. Which of the following ingredients of a Dolly Madison Fruit Pie could be metabolized by way of the Krebs Cycle reactions? (a) sugar (b) enriched wheat flour (c) starch (d) monoglycerides (e) all of these.

10. The primary structure of Dolly Madison Fruit Pie soy protein would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids (b) the sequence of its nucleotides (c) the folding of its polypeptides (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are paired (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

11. Assuming all of your textbook’s metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could you, personally, make from a Dolly Madison Fruit Pie? (a) polypeptides (b) DNA (c) glycogen (d) diglycerides (e) all of these.

12. Assuming all of your textbook’s metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could you, personally, produce from a Dolly Madison Fruit Pie by hydrolyzing “animal shortening” and “beef fat”? (a) amino acids (b) glycerol and fatty acids (c) glycogen (d) niacin.

13. If the potato eaters in Van Gogh’s famous painting were actual people eating real potatoes, where might some of the carbon atoms in those potatoes end up? (a) in the eaters’ genes (b) in the air surrounding the potato eaters (c) in worms in the local cemetery (d) in a Dolly Madison Fruit Pie (e) in any of these places.

14. Assuming a Cézanne still life was painted using real specimens as models, where could a carbon atom from one of the Malus pumila in such a painting be now? (a) in the air in Henzlik Hall (b) in the adenine of a sparrow in Paris (c) in a French Vitis vinifera plant (d) in any of these places.

15. What would a biologist looking at a Cézanne still life “see” in the Prunus domestica, Prunus pensylvanica, Pyrus communis, and Malus pumila represented? (a) sugar (b) polymers (c) Krebs cycle substrates (d) substrates for hydrolytic enzymes (e) all of these.

16. Which of the following is a direct result of gene expression (use of genetic information) in a cell? (a) an enzyme’s primary structure (b) an enzyme’s secondary structure (c) hydrolysis of cellulose (d) dehydration synthesis to produce a polymer (e) an enzyme’s active site.

17. In a metabolic pathway, (a) the product of one reaction can be the substrate for another (b) the substrate for one enzyme is not always a substrate for another enzyme (c) enzyme reactions can be linked (d) some reactions may be reversible (e) all of these.

18. In the Krebs cycle, (a) glucose is produced (b) some end products are the same as the starting substrates (c) carbon dioxide is fixed at several steps (d) peptide bonds are formed (e) all of these.

19. Which of the following are products of Krebs cycle reactions? (a) amino acids (b) reduced and oxidized cytochromes (c) CO₂ and reduced hydrogen carriers (d) polypeptides (e) all of these.

20. Which of the following are required as beginning substrates for the Krebs cycle reactions? (a) ATP (b) reduced hydrogen carriers (c) acetyl-CoA and oxalacetic acid (d) glucose (e) cytochromes.

21. According to the anabolic and catabolic summary diagrams in your textbook, which of the following statements is true:

(a) Carbon from carbohydrates could end up in amino acids

(b) Carbon from amino acids could end up in lipids

(d) Carbon from amino acids could end up in carbohydrates

(e) all of these.

22. An enzyme’s primary structure is its (a) coiled form (b) folded form (c) sequence of amino acids (d) active site (e) combination with several other polypeptides.

23. Which of the following would be considered macromolecules? (a) starch (b) glycogen (c) proteins (d) DNA (e) all of these.

24. Which of the following would be considered polymers? (a) starch (b) glycogen (c) cellulose (d) DNA (e) all of these.

25. What role do cytochromes play in cellular respiration? (a) oxidation-reduction reactions (b) they are an essential part of oxidative phosphorylation (c) essential to ATP synthesis (d) all of these.

26. Photosynthesis occurs in (a) mitochondria (b) chloroplasts (c) lysosomes (d) endoplasmic reticulum (e) Golgi apparatus.

27. Which of the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) oxygen (b) CO₂ (c) ADP (d) glucose (e) all of these.

28. Which of the following is consumed during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) H₂O (b) ADP (c) glucose (d) all of these (e) none of these.

29. Which of the following occurs during the Calvin Cycle but not during the light reactions? (a) H₂O is split (b) CO₂ is fixed (c) ADP is converted to ATP (d) hydrogen carriers become oxidized (e) all of these.

30. Which of the following cell types are likely to be participating in all cell cycle events? (a) nerve (b) muscle (c) skin (d) all of these (e) none of these.

31. Which of the following cell types are likely to have “left the cycle”? (a) muscle (b) nerve (c) eye lens (d) all of these (e) none of these.

32. Where is a cell’s growth factor receptor protein located? (a) in the nucleus (b) in the plasma membrane (c) inside a chloroplast (d) inside a mitochondrion.

33. A growth factor is most likely to be (a) a carbohydrate (b) a lipid (c) a nucleic acid (d) a protein (e) a form of cellulose.

34. A cell’s signal transduction pathway is made up of (a) carbohydrates (b) lipids (c) nucleic acids (d) starch or cellulose (e) protein.

35. Thymine, adenine, cytosine, and guanine are (a) carbohydrates (b) lipids (c) purines and pyrimidines (d) proteins (e) enzymes.

36. In the cell cycle, what happens during M? (a) chromosomes separate and the cell divides (b) DNA is synthesized (c) nothing (d) the cell differentiates.

37. In the cell cycle, what happens during S? (a) chromosomes separate and the cell divides (b) DNA is synthesized (c) nothing (d) the cell differentiates.

38. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) are different genetically (b) are genetically identical (c) are stopped in G₂ (d) are stopped in S.

39. During prophase (a) chromosomes separate (b) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) the cell actually divides into two.

40. During metaphase (a) chromosomes separate (b) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) the cell actually divides into two.

41. During anaphase (a) chromosomes separate (b) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) the cell actually divides into two.

42. During cytokinesis (a) chromosomes separate (b) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) the cell actually divides into two.

43. From a genetic point of view, a strain of inbred mice (a) is highly variable (b) is very uniform (c) is immunologically deficient.

44. In the Fantasia segment The Sorcerer’s Apprentice, Mickey Mouse (a) exhibited naiveté about the power of technology (b) easily controlled technology (c) understood how to control technology but chose not to do it.

45. In what way(s) is a Warhol Mickey Mouse painting or print similar to real mice used in genetic research? (a) they both look like Mickey Mouse (b) they both have immature characteristics such as large heads (c) they both get injected with DNA in their tail veins (d) they both occur in multiple exact copies (e) they are both high variable in form and function.

Bios 101 Janovy I-99-00 THIRD EXAM

1. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) are genetically equal (b) have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair.

2. Daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have only one member of each homologous pair (b) have only one member of each pair of alleles (c) have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) all of these (e) none of these.

3. During either mitosis or meiosis, when would you first expect to actually see chromosomes? (a) interphase (b) prophase (c) metaphase (d) anaphase (e) telophase.

4. During mitosis, when would you expect to see tetrads? (a) prophase (b) metaphase (c) telophase (d) interphase (e) never.

5. During meiosis, when would you expect to see tetrads? (a) prophase (b) metaphase (c) telophase (d) interphase (e) never.

6. Which of the following would you expect to happen during meiosis but not during mitosis? (a) syn- apsis (b) crossing over (c) independent assortment (d) all of these (e) none of these.

7. Which of the following crosses will produce more genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a) aa x aa (b) aa x Aa (c) Aa x Aa (d) AA x AA (e) none of these.

8. Which of the crosses in question #7 would you expect to be “true breeding”? (a) b (b) a and d (c) b and c (d) c (e) none of these.

9. Which of the crosses in question #7 would you expect to produce less genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a) b (b) a and d (c) b and c (d) c (e) none of these.

10. How many chromatids would you expect to see in a replicated homologous pair of chromosomes? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16.

11. How many different kinds of gametes would AaBbRr be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

12. Which of the following would be one of the gametes made by the individual in question #11? (a) aabbrr (c) AAb (c) abr (d) aRr (e) none of these.

13. How many different kinds of gametes would AaDdGg be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

14. Which of the following could be a gamete made by the individual in question #13? (a) adg (b) ADG (c) adG (d) AdG (e) any of these.

15. Consider the individual in questions #11 and 13. What do you know about this individual? (a) it has at least 4 different homologous pairs of chromosomes (b) it can make at least 64 different kinds of gametes (c) the A and G loci are linked (d) the A and B loci are not linked (e) all of these.

16. Suppose the individual in question #13 was produced by parents from two “true breeding” lines, one of which had the dominant phenotype for all traits, the other of which had the recessive phenotype for all traits. What should be the question #13 individual’s homologous pair? (a) aDg and AdG (b) ADg and adG (c) adg and ADG (d) any of these (e) none of these.

17. Which of the following processes is responsible for the genetic diversity seen in offspring? (a) independent assortment (b) crossing over (c) mutation (d) all of these (e) none of these.

18. Who is Georgia O’Keeffe? (a) the scientist who discovered crossing over (b) the historian who discovered Mendel’s lost notebooks (c) a famous genetic counselor (d) an artist who painted bright flower pictures.

For the following questions, let us consider the traits Mendel used in studying his pea plants. The traits are:

Tall stem = T; dwarf stem = t

Axial flower = A; terminal flower = a

Purple flower = P; white flower = p

Inflated pod = I; constricted pod = i

Green pod = G; yellow pod = g

Round seed = R; wrinkled seed = r

Yellow seed = Y; green seed = y

19. Which of the following crosses will produce the most genetic diversity? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

20. Which of the following crosses will produce the least genetic diversity? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

21. Which of the following crosses might Mendel have done to demonstrate segregation of alleles? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

22. Which of the following crosses might Mendel have done to demonstrate independent assortment? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

The rest of the questions concern the cross: ttAaPpIiggRryy (Plant #1) x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (Plant #2).

23. How many kinds of gametes can Plant #1 make? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32 (e) 128.

24. How many kinds of gametes can Plant #2 make? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 64 (e) 128.

25. Which of the following plants would you use in a breeding experiment to check your answers to questions #23 and #24? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) ttaappiiggrryy.

26. What is the probability that a cross between Plant #1 and Plant #2 will produce an offspring with white flowers? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) 1.00.

27. What is the probability that a cross between Plant #1 and Plant #2 will produce a tall offspring with green pods? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) 1.00.

28. The parents of Plant #1 could have had (a) purple flowers (b) white flowers (c) yellow pods (d) any of these (e) none of these.

29. The parents of Plant #1 must have (a) been tall (b) been dwarf (c) had yellow seeds (d) had axial flowers (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

30. How many of the loci in Plants #1 and #2 would assort independently from one another? (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) all of them (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

31. If you allowed Plant #1 to self fertilize, what is the probability that the seeds would grow into a dwarf plant? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) 1.00.

32. If you allowed Plant #2 to self fertilize, what is the probability that the seeds would grow into a dwarf plant? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) 1.00.

33. If you started a garden by allowing Plant #1 to self fertilize and planting the seeds, which of the following traits would breed true? (a) flower color (b) flower position (c) height (d) seed shape (e) all of these.

34. If you started your garden from both Plant #1 and Plant #2, allowing them and their offspring to freely interbreed, which of the following traits would breed true? (a) height (b) flower color (c) seed shape (d) seed color (e) none of these.

Continue with the cross: ttAaPpIiggRryy (Plant #1) x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (Plant #2).

35. What proportion of the seeds from crossing Plant #1 and Plant #2 would you expect to be wrinkled and green? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/8 (e) 1/16.

36. What proportion of the seeds from crossing Plant #1 and Plant #2 would you expect to round and yellow? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 3/8 (e) 1/16.

37. How many different genotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing? (a) 6 (b) 54 (c) 108 (d) 324 (e) 648.

38. How many different phenotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing? (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64 (e) 128.

39. Can this crossing produce seeds that are heterozygous at all loci? (a) yes (b) no (c) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

40. Can this crossing produce seeds that are homozygous recessive at all loci? (a) yes (b) no (c) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

41. Can this crossing produce seeds that are homozygous dominant at all loci? (a) yes (b) no (c) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

42. Using only these two plants as starting material, is there any trait for which you could not eventually produce a true breeding line by selectively crossing plants in your garden? (a) yes (b) no (c) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

43. Using these two plants, what fraction of the seeds will produce true breeding flower color plants? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) 1.00.

44. For how many of the seven traits could you instantly get true breeding lines simply by self fertilization of Plant #1? (a) none (b) all seven (c) three (d) four (e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

45. For how many of the seven traits could you instantly get true breeding lines simply by self fertilization of Plant #2? (a) none (b) all seven (c) three (d) four (e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

46. How many loci are represented by the genotype ttAaPpIiggRryy? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 7 (e) 14.

47. How many homologous pairs are represented by the genotype ttAaPpIiggRryy? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 7 (e) 14.

48. How many phenotypes are represented by the genotype ttAaPpIiggRryy? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 7 (e) 14.

Bios 101 Janovy I-99-00 FINAL EXAM

3. A bird and a butterfly seeking nectar from the same flower represent (a) competition (b) energy flow (c) three species, only some of which may be known to science (d) three different sets of DNA [genetic information] (e) all of these.

4. What do you know about the names Surnia ulula (Linné) and Ginkgo biloba Linnaeus 1758? (a) They apply to organisms Linnaeus described, probably in 1758. (b) You can tell from the names that they are both in the same genus. (c) You can tell from the names that they are in the same family. (d) None of these. (d) All of these.

5. Cellular respiration and photosynthesis are processes (a) that occur in ecosystems (b) that occur in Surnia ulula (c) that must take place before energy flows through an ecosystem (d) that must take place before the carbon cycle operates in an ecosystem (e) all of these.

6. Which of the following are found in Eukarya but not in Archaea? (a) DNA (b) cell membranes (c) nuclear envelope (d) ability to survive in extreme environments (e) all of these.

7. Which of the following are likely to have cell membranes made according to the fluid mosaic model? (a) you (b) Ginkgo biloba (c) the northern hawk owl (d) a tapeworm in your dog (e) all of these.

8. Glucose is (a) an amino acid (b) a 6-carbon sugar (c) a peptidoglycan (d) a lipid (e) a source of nitrogen for Archaea.

9. Which of the following are most likely to require their nitrogen in the form of a mixture of amino acids? (a) Archaea (b) green plants (c) owls (d) none of these.

10. Eukaryotic organisms are likely to have (a) mitochondria (b) nuclear envelope (c) lysosomes (d) Golgi apparatus (e) all of these.

11. If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a) membrane proteins to move around (b) membrane proteins to remain fixed in place (c) lipid molecules to occur in a single layer (d) numerous nucleoids to be floating in the membrane (e) none of these.

12. Which of the following function primarily to “package” cell products such as proteins? (a) lysosome (b) Golgi apparatus (c) mitochondria (d) chloroplast (e) nuclear envelope.

13. Which of the following are most likely to contain hydrolytic enzymes? (a) mitochondria (b) cell wall (c) chloroplasts (d) lysosome (e) nuclear envelope.

14. During the process of differentiation, eukaryotic cells with identical genetic makeup usually (a) start making new kinds of proteins (b) acquire new functions (c) stop making some kinds of protein (d) all of these.

15. In theories of the symbiotic origin of eukaryotic cells, which of the following would be considered degenerate symbionts? (a) lysosomes (b) chloroplasts and mitochondria (c) endoplasmic reticulum (d) Golgi apparatus (e) all of these.

16. What biological phenomenon was Frederick Remington able to see and record that most others could not? (a) the dependence of lepidopterans on particular host plants (b) high speed action by large mammals (c) energy flow in forest ecosystems (d) the role of actin and myosin in muscle contraction (e) gene expression.

17. Which of the following might you expect to see in Cro-Magnon paintings in Altamira? (a) scarab beetles (b) northern hawk owls (c) horses (d) Monarch butterflies (e) all of these.

19. In a frequency distribution describing any biological phenomenon, what is the dependent variable usually plotted on the Y (vertical) axis? (a) numbers of individuals with a particular measurable characteristic (b) categories into which individuals are placed (c) kinds of cells which carry out the Krebs cycle (d) rate at which ATP is formed in a cell (e) number of different reactions in a metabolic pathway.

20. Which of the following is most likely the product of a dehydration synthesis (condensation) reaction? (a) glucose (b) cellulose (c) an amino acid (d) adenine (e) thymine.

21. Which of the following is most likely the product of a hydrolytic reaction? (a) DNA (b) protein (c) cellulose (d) fatty acid (e) lipid.

22. What is probably the first step in digesting “soy protein isolate”? (a) oxidation (b) reduction (c) dehydration synthesis (d) hydrolysis (e) post-transcriptional processing.

23. A peptide bond occurs between (a) glycerol and a fatty acid (b) nucleotides in DNA (c) amino acids in a protein (d) cytochromes and electrons (e) all of these.

25. Assuming all of your textbook’s metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could you, personally, make from packaged processed food? (a) polypeptides (b) DNA (c) glycogen (d) diglycerides (e) all of these.

26. Assuming all of your textbook’s metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could you, personally, produce from a Dolly Madison Fruit Pie by hydrolyzing “animal shortening” and “beef fat”? (a) amino acids (b) glycerol and fatty acids (c) glycogen (d) niacin (e) none of these.

27. Which of the following is a direct result of gene expression (use of genetic information) in a cell? (a) an enzyme’s primary structure (b) an enzyme’s secondary structure (c) hydrolysis of cellulose (d) dehydration synthesis to produce a polymer (e) an enzyme’s active site.

28. In a metabolic pathway, (a) the product of one reaction can be the substrate for another (b) the substrate for one enzyme is not always a substrate for another enzyme (c) enzyme reactions can be linked (d) some reactions may be reversible (e) all of these.

29. Which of the following are products of Krebs cycle reactions? (a) amino acids (b) reduced and oxidized cytochromes (c) CO₂ and reduced hydrogen carriers (d) polypeptides (e) all of these.

30. Which of the following are required as beginning substrates for the Krebs cycle reactions? (a) ATP (b) reduced hydrogen carriers (c) acetyl-CoA and oxalacetic acid (d) glucose (e) cytochromes.

31. According to the anabolic and catabolic summary diagrams in your textbook, which of the following statements is true:

(a) Carbon from carbohydrates could end up in amino acids

(b) Carbon from amino acids could end up in lipids

(d) Carbon from amino acids could end up in carbohydrates

(e) all of these.

32. Which of the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) oxygen (b) CO₂ (c) ADP (d) glucose (e) none of these.

33. Which of the following is consumed during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) H₂O (b) ADP (c) glucose (d) ribulose phosphate (e) none of these.

34. Which of the following occurs during the Calvin Cycle but not during the light reactions? (a) H₂O is split (b) CO₂ is fixed (c) ADP is converted to ATP (d) hydrogen carriers become oxidized (e) all of these.

35. In the cell cycle, what happens during S? (a) chromosomes separate and the cell divides (b) DNA is synthesized (c) nothing (d) the cell differentiates.

36. Where is a cell’s growth factor receptor protein located? (a) in the nucleus (b) in the plasma membrane (c) inside a chloroplast (d) inside a mitochondrion.

37. If the potato eaters in Van Gogh’s famous painting were actual people eating real potatoes, where might some of the carbon atoms in those potatoes end up? (a) in the eaters’ genes (b) in the air surrounding the potato eaters (c) in worms in the local cemetery (d) in a Dolly Madison Fruit Pie (e) in any of these places.

38. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) are different genetically (b) are genetically identical (c) are stopped in G₂ (d) are stopped in S.

40. During mitosis, when would you expect to see tetrads? (a) prophase (b) metaphase (c) telophase (d) interphase (e) never.

41. During meiosis, when would you expect to see tetrads? (a) prophase (b) metaphase (c) telophase (d) interphase (e) never.

42. Which of the following would you expect to happen during meiosis but not during mitosis? (a) syn- apsis (b) crossing over (c) independent assortment (d) all of these (e) none of these.

43. How many different kinds of gametes would AaBbRr be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

44. Which of the following would be one of the gametes made by the individual in question #43? (a) aabbrr (c) ABb (c) abr (d) aRr (e) none of these.

45. Assuming the capital letters indicate dominant alleles and the lower case letters indicate recessive alleles, which of the following crosses will produce the most genetic diversity?

(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy

(b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy

(e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

46. Which of the following crosses might Mendel have done to demonstrate independent assortment? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

47. Assuming the alleles indicated are found in pea plants, which of the following crosses might Mendel have done to demonstrate segregation of alleles?

(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy

(b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy

(e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

48. How many loci are represented by the genotype ttAaPpIiggRryy? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 7 (e) 14.

49. How many homologous pairs are represented by the genotype ttAaPpIiggRryy? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 7 (e) 14.

50. Consider the cross ttAaPpIiggRryy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy that produces a thousand offspring. In these offspring, what will be the frequency of the recessive allele at the Y locus? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.75 (d) 1.00 (e) you can’t tell from the information given.

51. Assuming there is random interbreeding among offspring, no selection, and all genotypes are equally fit, what will be the frequency of the recessive a allele after ten generations of crossing between the descendents of the cross in question #50? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) none of these.

52. If, after ten generations of interbreeding among the descendents of the individuals in question number 50, the frequency of the dominant I allele is 0.87, what do you know has happened? (a) you can’t answer this question from the information given (b) selection has occurred against genes at the G locus (c) interbreeding has not been random (d) all phenotypes are equally fit.

53. If an offspring from the cross in question #50 ended up as a YY genotype, what might be the explanation? (a) transcription (b) translation (c) selection (d) mutation (e) any of these.

54. If you started with the cross in question #50 and selected against the dominant A phenotype for several generations, what would happen to allele frequencies at the Y locus? (a) recessive allele frequency would increase (b) recessive allele frequency would decrease (c) nothing (d) you can’t answer this question from the information given.

55. If an organism had a homologous pair of chromosomes aBCde and AbcDE, but its offspring had chromosomes that looked like adCBe and abcde, what has happened? (a) independent assortment (b) chromosomal mutation (c) selection (d) evolution (e) non-random breeding.

56. If an organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had the same gene with the sequence ATGCGTATG, what might have happened? (a) selection (b) frame shift mutation (c) inversion (d) non-random interbreeding (e) any of these.

57. If an organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had the same gene with the sequence ATGGCGTAT, what might be the result? (a) an enzyme would not function properly (b) nothing (c) selection against the offspring (d) an altered phenotype (e) any of these.

58. What is the product of the process known as transcription? (a) DNA (b) RNA (c) protein (d) mutation (e) any of these.

59. What is the produce of the process known as translation? (a) DNA (b) RNA (c) protein (d) mutation (e) any of these.

60. If the frequency of a recessive phenotype in a population is 0.25, what is the expected frequency of the dominant allele for that same trait? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) 1.00.

61. If the frequency of the dominant phenotype in a population is 0.84, what is the expected frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.16 (b) 0.40 (c) 0.84 (d) zero (e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

62. If you know that the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is 0.1, what is the expected frequency of the dominant phenotype for that same trait? (a) 0.99 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.09 (d) 0.18 (e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

63. In the populations of the previous three questions, what events might lead to results other than those expected? (a) transcription (b) translation (c) independent assortment (d) crossing over (e) non-random interbreeding.

64. If, in an experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele, you would expect the frequency of the dominant phenotype to (a) increase (b) decrease (c) stay the same (d) you can’t test your expectations with the information given.

65. If, in an experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele in order to test for the effects of selection, your null hypothesis states that after several generations of selection, the frequency of the dominant allele would be (a) higher (b) lower (c) the same as when you started (d) the same as that of the recessive allele.

66. Which of the following is most likely to be an effective tool for studying microevolution? (a) the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (b) The Central Dogma (c) cladistics (d) paleontology (e) they are all about equally effective.

67. Which of the following is most likely to be an effective tool for studying macroevolution? (a) mol-ecular biology (b) cladistics (c) paleontology (d) comparative anatomy (e) all of these.

68. Among various phenotypes in a population of a single species, those that are the most fit are (a) the largest (b) the strongest (c) the meanest and most aggressive (d) those that reproduce the most (e) the fastest.

69. Before Darwinian selection will occur, a single species’ population must (a) be variable in phenotype (b) be limited (c) vary in reproductive capacity (d) all of these (e) none of these.

70. In a phylogeny of vertebrate classes, endothermy evidently arose (a) once in the common ancestor of birds and mammals (b) twice, once in birds and once in mammals (c) in all the classes.

71. Among vertebrates, behavioral regulation of temperature occurs in (a) amphibians (b) reptiles (c) some birds (d) some mammals (e) all of these.

72. Among vertebrates, sources of genetic variation would include (a) mutation (b) independent assortment (c) crossing over (d) all of these.

73. Among vertebrates, mutations potentially affect (a) protein primary structure (b) protein secondary structure (c) enzyme function (d) fitness (e) all of these.

74. Which of the following are bugs? (a) ants (b) wasps (c) beetles (d) members of the Hemiptera (e) all of these.

75. The biological species concept states that members of a single species (a) can successfully interbreed (b) are reproductively isolated from other species (c) are structurally similar (d) all of these.

76. According to our present understanding of geological history, when did Pangea break apart? (a) during the Cambrian (b) during the Mesozoic (c) about 500 million years ago (d) during the last Ice Age (e) at the end of the K-T extinctions.

77. According to our present understanding of the fossil record, the Permian extinction occurred about (a) half a billion years ago (b) at the end of the Cretaceous (c) at the end of the Cambrian (d) at the end of the Paleozoic (e) during the Cenozoic.

78. The distribution of living and fossil lungfish suggests these fishes (a) evolved in South America (b) originated in Australia (c) originated in Pangea prior to its breakup (d) migrated to all the southern continents after the breakup of Pangea (e) migrated to Africa and Australia from South America.

79. Evidence from the fossil record suggests that during the Permian extinction (a) dinosaurs became extinct (b) about 90% of all genera became extinct (c) pentadactyl appendages evolved (d) lungfish migrated to Africa and South America (e) all of these.

80. Which of the following are included in the fossil record? (a) footprints (b) burrows (c) skull bones (d) nests and eggs (e) all of these.

81. Which of the following can be inferred, at least in some cases, from the fossil record? (a) nesting behavior (b) movement (c) ecological relationships (d) fate of homologous structures (e) all of these.

82. Bat and bird wings (a) both are made from pentadactyl appendages (b) have similar internal structure (c) both exhibit elongation of several “fingers” (d) both exhibit reduction in number of “fingers” (e) function similarly but are not homologous.

83. Proximal problems are problems (a) of origin (b) involving evolutionary relationships (c) of function (d) that are essentially “why” questions (e) cannot be studied experimentally.

84. Ultimate problems are problems (a) of origin (b) of function (c) that are essentially “how” questions (d) that must be solved before we can control processes such as cell division (e) that must be studied experimentally.

85. Which of the following structures in your body are considered homologous to the same structures in fossil plesiosaurs, pterosaurs, and lobe-finned fish? (a) humerus (b) radius (c) ulna (d) all of these (e) none of these.

86. Which of the following would probably be the best outgroup for constructing a phylogeny of one family of beetles? (a) lobe-finned fish (b) another family of beetles (c) the ingroup family of beetles (d) some group of plants (e) a true bug.

87. How might you test a phylogenetic hypothesis involving living Perissodactyla? (a) construct a phylogeny using ribosomal DNA (b) construct a phylogeny using primary structure of homologous proteins (c) construct a phylogeny incorporating fossil horses and camels (d) none of these methods would work (e) all of these methods would work.

88. Among the Artiodactyla, plesiomorphic (primitive) characters would include (a) endothermy (b) a backbone (c) hair (d) all of these (e) none of these.

89. If you were constructing a phylogeny of the Artiodactyla using structural characters, apomorphic (derived) characters would include (a) loss of toes (b) hair (c) endothermy (d) all of these (e) none of these.

90. In a phylogeny, clades are considered (a) members of the outgroup (b) monophyletic (c) to contain only some descendents of a common ancestor (d) to contain descendents of several ancestral groups.

91. In a cladistic analysis, the principle of parsimony (a) minimizes the number of necessary evolutionary steps (b) maximizes the number of necessary evolutionary steps (c) minimizes the number of shared derived traits (d) eliminates monophyletic clades.

92. Phylogenies suggest (a) the best outgroup (b) a sequence of evolutionary events (c) the best set of characters to use in analysis (d) the correct plesiomorphic characters (e) all of these.

93. Molecular phylogenies can be constructed using (a) primary protein structure (b) nucleotide sequences (c) frequencies of isozymes in a population (d) amino acid sequences (e) all of these.

94. Early DNA-DNA hybridization studies showed (a) humans and chimps shared 99% of their nucleotide sequences (b) humans were more closely related to gorillas than to chimps (c) DNA hybridization techniques were useless as tools for studying evolution (d) all of these.

95. If molecular biologists’ interpretations of human origins are correct, (a) humans originated in Africa (b) humans evolved in several different places then interbred (c) Homo sapiens is the only species of its genus to have ever lived (d) H. sapiens is one of at least 50 species of Homo that have lived.

Bios 101 Janovy I-05-06 FIRST EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, clicker number, and the words “BS101 First Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name (last name first) and clicker number. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 11:20. Choose the BEST answer.

1. A scientific hypothesis is (a) a true statement (b) a false statement that scientists try to prove true (c) an assertion that can be demonstrated to be false (d) a general explanation for natural phenomena (e) an assertion that cannot be falsified.

2. What is a null hypothesis? (a) a statement used for determining which experimental group is more likely to differ from the controls (b) an assertion of no difference between experimental and control groups (c) a prediction that there will be a difference between the control and experimental groups (d) an untestable prediction.

3. In order to do experiments in biology, you will need (a) organisms that can be grown under standardized conditions. (b) a design that includes a testable hypothesis. (c) a design that should include an alternative testable hypothesis. (d) a means of quantifying your results. (e) all of these.

4. Which of the following would be a typical chain of events in experimental biology? (a) observation, question, hypothesis, test predictions, falsify (b) hypothesis, question, observation, test predictions, falsify (c) observation, hypothesis, question, test prediction, falsify (d) test prediction, question, hypothesis, observation, falsify (e) observation, question, hypothesis, falsify, test prediction.

5. Paradigms are (a) predictions of no difference between control and experimental groups. (b) views about nature that tend to determine acceptable lines of research and acceptable results of that research. (c) evidence used to answer questions about phylogeny. (d) predictions that cannot be falsified.

6. Which of these items from a recent Omaha World-Herald sports section have scientific names, sets of environment conditions under which they reproduce, evolutionary histories, and related species? (a) dog (b) horse (c) leech (d) catfish (e) all of these.

7. Which of the following BIOS101 vocabulary words are you likely to find in the ingredients list of junk food from a campus vending machine? (a) protein (b) lipid or monoglycerides (c) sugar (d) polyunsaturated (e) all of these.

8. Which of the following items listed on junk food from a campus vending machine were probably built by cells carrying out dehydration reactions? (a) saturated fat (b) enzymes (c) starch (d) di-glycerides (e) all of these.

9. Which of the following items listed on junk food from a campus vending machine would be broken down by hydrolytic enzymes in a lysosome? (a) saturated fat (b) enzymes (c) starch (d) di-glycerides (e) all of these.

10. In a typical ecosystem involving plants, prey, predators, and decomposers, (a) energy is recycled but nutrients are not. (b) nutrients are recycled but energy is not. (c) over long periods of time, both energy and nutrients are recycled. (d) neither energy nor nutrients are recycled.

11. If two structurally similar insects have different color patterns, your testable predictions might include (a) they are different sexes and I’m seeing sexual dimorphism. (b) they are different species even though they have similar structure. (c) they are different developmental stages of one species. (d) they are different morphs of a highly polymorphic species. (e) any of these.

12. The environmental conditions that allow a species to exist are termed (a) an ecological niche. (b) a paradigm. (c) superfecundity. (d) differential survival. (e) a life cycle.

13. Superfecundity refers to (a) genetically determined differences between individuals. (b) the point at which populations stop increasing. (c) the rate at which populations increase. (d) the fact that more individuals are produced than can survive. (e) the fact that some individuals are more likely to survive than others.

14. Different types of virus vary in their (a) shape and size (b) relationships with their host cells (c) nucleotide sequences (d) primary sequence of their proteins (e) all of these.

15. HIV is (a) a retrovirus that uses reverse transcriptase to build proteins. (b) a retrovirus that uses proteins to build host cell membrane. (c) a virus without glycoproteins attached to its envelope. (d) a virus that uses reverse transcriptase to build DNA. (e) all of these.

16. During the life cycle of HIV, what would be a product of the enzymatic reaction carried out by reverse transcriptase? (a) RNA (b) DNA (c) protein (d) lipid (e) more reverse transcriptase.

17. During the life cycle of HIV as outlined in your book, what eventually happens to the product of a reverse transcription reaction? (a) It ends up in the viral envelope. (b) It is inserted into the host cell DNA. (c) It is put into new viral RNA. (d) It ends up in the viral envelope glycoproteins.

18. During the life cycles of both HIV and influenza virus as outlined in your book, what is a major component of viral envelope? (a) host cell DNA (b) viral RNA (c) host cell membrane (d) viral DNA (e) provirus DNA.

19. According to your textbook, what is the major difference between HIV and influenza virus (IV) life cycles? (a) HIV uses host cell DNA for its envelope but IV does not. (b) IV DNA is incorporated into host cell chromosome but HIV is not. (c) HIV DNA is incorporated into host cell chromosome but IV DNA is not. (d) HIV uses host cell membrane to make envelope but IV does not.

20. Which of the following would be found in DNA of a host cell infected with HIV? (a) glycerol (b) glucose (c) amino acids (d) nucleotides like adenine and guanine (e) fatty acids.

21. RNA is (a) a polymer containing uracil. (b) a product of the reaction carried out by reverse transcriptase. (c) a monomer containing adenine and guanine. (d) a polymer made up of glycerol and fatty acids. (e) a polymer made up of glucose molecules.

22. Which of the following would be considered an anabolic reaction? (a) forming peptide bonds to generate a polypeptide (b) converting lipid into glycerol and fatty acids (c) using an enzyme to convert glycogen into glucose (d) breaking down RNA into nucleotides (e) none of these.

23. Which of the following would be considered a catabolic reaction? (a) forming peptide bonds to generate a polypeptide (b) converting lipid into glycerol and fatty acids (c) using an enzyme to convert glucose into glycogen (d) the reactions carried out by reverse transcriptase (e) all of these.

24. Which of the following would result from a dehydration reaction? (a) triglycerides (b) polypeptides (c) RNA (d) starch or glycogen (e) all of these.

25. Which of the following would be the product of a reaction carried out by reverse transcriptase? (a) AUGCCGAGG (b) AATGCTGCG (c) CGCUCGAUG (d) AAAGGGGCU (e) any of these.

26. Which of the following would be a polypeptide? (a) AATGCTGCG (b) ala-leu-ser-gly (c) glucose-glucose-glucose (d) DNA→RNA→protein (e) AAAGGGGCU

27. A nucleotide molecule consists of (a) branching chains of glucose. (b) a nitrogen-containing ring, a 5-carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. (c) glycerol, fatty acids, and amino acids. (d) glycerol, fatty acids, and a phosphate group. (e) a long chain of carboxyl groups.

28. Which of the following would result from a hydrolytic reaction? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) nucleotides (d) all of these (e) none of these.

29. Which of the following would result from a hydrolytic reaction in which glycogen was the substrate? (a) glycerol (b) fatty acids (c) amino acids (d) glucose (e) all of these.

30. For a protein to function properly after being built by a cell, which of these must remain unchanged? (a) primary structure (b) tertiary structure (c) nucleotide sequence (d) amino acid sequence (e) structure of the peptide bonds.

31. Which of the following functions primarily to “package” cell products such as proteins? (a) lyso-somes (b) Golgi apparatus (c) mitochondria (d) chloroplast (e) nuclear envelope.

32. Which of the following are most likely to contain hydrolytic enzymes? (a) mitochondria (b) cell membranes (c) chloroplasts (d) lysosomes (e) nuclear envelope.

33. Which of the following would be considered an initial step in digestion? (a) production of fatty acids from lipids (b) production of amino acids from proteins (c) production of nucleotides from DNA or RNA (d) production of glucose from glycogen (e) any of these.

34. If you digested the plasma membranes in a piece of beef, what would be some of the products of reactions carried out by hydrolytic enzymes? (a) glycerol (b) glucose (c) amino acids (d) fatty acids (e) all of these.

35. Which of the following would you expect to find inside a stem cell? (a) mitochondria (b) rough endoplasmic reticulum (c) nuclear envelope (d) ribosomes (e) all of these.

36. Various cell membrane proteins probably (a) differ in both primary and tertiary structure. (b) carry out different functions. (c) have polysaccharides attached to them. (d) help transport materials across the membrane. (e) all of these.

37. Polysaccharide portions of membrane glycoproteins probably (a) differ in their branching structure. (b) contain different kinds of amino acids. (c) have different nucleotide sequences. (d) are built by reverse transcriptase. (e) all of these.

38. The polypeptide portions of stem cell membrane glycoproteins were probably built using (a) Golgi apparatus. (b) peroxisomes. (c) reverse transcriptase. (d) ribosomes. (e) lysosomes.

39. According to the diagrams in your book, a damaged mitochondrion is likely to be digested by enzymes from (a) peroxisomes. (b) centrioles. (c) ribosomes. (d) lysosomes. (e) smooth ER.

40. Particles ingested by endocytosis are likely to contain (a) amino acids. (b) nucleotides. (c) fatty acids. (d) the same stuff as junk food from campus vending machines. (e) all of these.

41. Macromolecules can be highly specific but built according to the same general design because (a) the general design differs between species. (b) the sequence of similar parts can differ among various macromolecules. (c) some macromolecules have nucleotides while others have carbohydrates. (d) macromolecules built by dehydration synthesis differ from those built by hydrolysis.

42. The Golgi apparatus functions to (a) produce cellular energy. (b) package macromolecules and other cellular products. (c) carry out polypeptide synthesis. (d) digest damaged organelles.

43. Peroxisomes generally contain materials that can (a) produce polypeptides. (b) kill bacteria. (c) digest lipids. (d) package macromolecules.

44. If you studied lots of electron microscope pictures of cells, you would expect to discover (a) several membrane-bound organelles. (b) connections between nuclear envelope and rough ER. (c) con-nections between rough ER and smooth ER (d) vesicles near the Golgi. (e) all of these.

45. With respect to stem cells, a major scientific issue is (a) where they come from. (b) what kind of benefits might come from their use. (c) how to make them develop into other kinds of cell types. (d) all of these.

46. With respect to stem cells, a major political issue is (a) where they come from. (b) what kind of benefits might come from their use. (c) how to make them develop into other kinds of cell types. (d) all of these.

47. With respect to climate change, the major scientific issue is (a) whether global warming is occurring. (b) what humans should do to prepare for altered climate. (c) who is responsible for global warming. (d) who should pay the cost for stopping climate change.

48. If scientists’ predictions are correct, the global human population should stop growing (a) in 200 years (b) within a decade (c) within the life expectancy of most people in this class (d) never.

49. Objective evidence that could be cited to support a claim that humans are still evolving can be found in (a) the current population growth rate. (b) differential contribution of various nations to the global human population. (c) effects of the “Black Death” in Europe during the Middle Ages (d) birth rates in so-called “developed” nations.

Bios 101 Janovy I-05-06 SECOND EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, clicker number, and the words “BS101 Second Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name (last name first) and clicker number. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 11:20. Choose the BEST answer.

1. Which of the following occurs during endocytosis but does not occur during exocytosis? (a) DNA synthesis (b) transport of particles from outside to inside a cell (c) movement of particles from inside to outside a cell (d) synthesis of macromolecules (e) movement of fluid from inside to outside a cell.

2. Which of the following is necessary for a particle such as low density lipoprotein to be taken up by receptor-mediated mechanism? (a) membrane lipids (b) exocytosis (c) chromatin (d) receptor proteins on the particle (e) receptor proteins bound to the cell.

3. Which of the following processes moves molecules inside a cell but against a concentration gradient? (a) receptor-mediated uptake (b) active transport (c) diffusion (d) facilitated diffusion (e) exocytosis.

4. Active transport (a) requires the expenditure of ATP. (b) requires participation of membrane proteins. (c) results in movement of molecules against the concentration gradient. (d) allows a cell to maintain concentrations that differ from the concentrations of its surroundings. (e) all of these

5. Which of the following would likely be products of a catabolic pathway? (a) polynucleotides (b) polypeptides (c) carbon dioxide and water (d) endocytotic vesicles (e) receptor proteins.

6. Which of the following would likely be products of an anabolic pathway? (a) polypeptides (b) receptor proteins (c) polynucleotides (d) glycogen (e) all of these.

7. When enzyme reactions are linked (a) the substrate of one enzyme is also the substrate for another. (b) both enzymes produce the same product. (c) the product of one reaction is a substrate for the next. (d) one enzyme carries out two different reactions. (e) CoA and NAD+ are required for the reactions to occur.

8. According to the general catabolic metabolism diagrams in your textbook, a carbon atom from a peanut could end up in (a) acetyl CoA (b) pyruvate (c) one of the citric acid cycle intermediates (d) glucose (e) any of these.

9. According to the general anabolic metabolism diagrams in your textbook, a carbon atom from a peanut could end up in (a) acetyl CoA (b) pyruvate (c) one of the citric acid cycle intermediates (d) glucose (e) any of these.

10. The energy contained in molecules such as glucose and amino acids (a) is greater than the energy required to build the molecules. (b) is present because of the chemical structure of those molecules. (c) can be extracted by means of anabolic pathways. (d) cannot be converted to other forms of energy.

11. Assuming your textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could you, personally, make from the ingredients in a typical breakfast cereal? (a) polypeptides (b) DNA (c) cell membrane (d) polysaccharides (e) all of these.

12. Assuming textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following ingredients in a box of typical breakfast cereal could you, personally, convert into useful energy by way of catabolic reactions? (a) starch (b) soy bean protein (c) citric acid (d) oats (e) all of these.

13. What happens during oxidative phosphorylation? (a) ATP is converted to ADP. (b) ADP is converted to ATP. (c) citric acid cycle intermediates are produced. (d) all of these. (e) none of these.

14. Vitamins are (a) large polypeptides that cannot be synthesized by the cell. (b) polynucleotides that are synthesized as part of the citrus acid cycle reactions. (c) usually a part of exocytotic vesicle membrane. (d) often parts of co-enzymes that act as carriers. (e) all of these.

15. Assuming that textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could end up as part of a mutant DNA strand you pass on to one of your children? (a) citric acid cycle intermediates (b) carbon from mitochondrial membrane lipids (c) nitrogen from beef (d) a 2-carbon piece carried by acetyl CoA (e) any of these.

16. Assuming that textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could end up part of an influenza virus particle you pass to your child? (a) citric acid cycle intermediates (b) carbon from mitochondrial membrane lipids (c) nitrogen from beef (d) any of these (e) none of these.

17. ATP is (a) a nucleotide. (b) a polynucleotide. (c) a nucleic acid. (d) a citric acid cycle intermediate. (e) an enzyme that functions in the electron transport system.

18. If an enzyme reaction requires energy, that energy is usually supplied in the form of (a) ADP. (b) ATP. (c) citric acid cycle intermediates. (d) co-enzymes. (e) any of these.

19. If a metabolic pathway produces energy that is available for use in anabolic reactions, such energy is usually supplied in the form of (a) ADP. (b) ATP. (c) citric acid cycle intermediates. (d) co-enzymes. (e) any of these.

20. Thymine, adenine, cytosine, uracil and guanine are (a) carbohydrates. (b) lipids. (c) nitrogenous bases that obey the base pairing rules. (d) proteins. (e) nucleic acids.

21. During which of the following cell cycle phases would thymine be using in the construction of a nucleotide polymer? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) any of these phases.

22. During which of the following cell cycle phases are sister chromatids actually produced? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) any of these phases.

23. In the cell cycle, what happens during S? (a) Chromosomes separate and the cell divides. (b) DNA is synthesized. (c) The cell prepares for DNA synthesis. (d) The cell differentiates. (e) None of these.

24. In the cell cycle, what happens during M? (a) chromosomes separate and the cell divides (b) DNA is synthesized (c) nothing (d) the cell differentiates into an embryonic stem cell.

25. In the cell cycle, what happens during interphase? (a) chromosomes separate and the cell divides (b) DNA is synthesized (c) nothing (d) the cell differentiates into another type of cell (e) the chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies.

26. If a mutation is a mistake in DNA synthesis that can be passed on to future generations, during which cell cycle phase must that mistake occur? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) any of these phases.

27. CATTGCGCAAT is a piece of genetic information. Which of the following would be the complementary strand of DNA that satisfies the base pairing rules? (a) CATTGCGCAAT (b) GTAACGCGTTA (c) CTTAGCGCAAT (d) TTACAAGTTGC (e) any of these.

28. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair (b) have half many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair (e) enter G2 before they enter S.

29. If you used the correct techniques to study cells undergoing mitosis, you should be able to see or determine (a) sister chromatids. (b) homologous pairs of chromosomes. (c) 2n number for the species. (d) whether the cells were in M phase. (e) all of these.

30. The four daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair (b) have as many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair (e) enter G1 before they enter M.

31. If a species has 12 homologous pairs of chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be in each sperm from a male of that species? (a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) The answer depends on the number of sister chromatids produced during mitosis. (e) You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

32. If a species has 24 homologous pairs of chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be in each unfertilized egg from a female of that species? (a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) The answer depends on the number of sister chromatids produced during mitosis. (e) You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

33. If a species has 24 homologous pairs of chromosomes, how many homologous pairs would be in each fertilized egg of that species? (a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) The answer depends on the number of sister chromatids produced during mitosis. (e) You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

34. Which of the following would obey the base-pairing rules of DNA synthesis? (a) adenine (b) thymine (c) guanine (d) cytosine (e) all of these.

35. Which of the following events would occur during mRNA synthesis? (a) adenine pairing with cytosine (b) translation (c) DNA ligase linking polynucleotide pieces (d) uracil pairing with adenine (e) RNA polymerase linking thymine to adenine.

36. Which of the following events would occur during translation? (a) adenine pairing with thymine (b) peptide bonds being formed (c) DNA ligase linking polynucleotide pieces (d) addition of nucleotides to the 3’ end of an existing polynucleotide (e) none of these.

37. Which of the following could serve as a template for transcription in a eukaryotic cell? (a) ATTAGCGCT (b) GAUCCGAUG (c) GAAUCUCCG (d) AUGCCGCGG (e) any of these.

38. Which of the following could serve as a template for translation in a eukaryotic cell? (a) AUUAGCGCU (b) GAUCCGAUG (c) GAAUCUCCG (d) AUGCCGCGG (e) any of these.

39. Which of the following would be a product of a reaction carried out by RNA polymerase? (a) polypeptide (b) a gene (c) mRNA (d) an endocytotic vesicle (e) ATTGCGACG.

40. The enzyme that links nucleotides to a growing daughter's 3' end of a growing DNA strand is called (a) DNA ligase. (b) DNA polymerase. (c) mRNA. (d) RNA polymerase. (e) none of the above.

41. DNA ligase functions to (a) add nucleotides to the 5’ end of an existing polynucleotide. (b) tie pieces of polynucleotide together (c) carry out translation (d) produce mRNA (e) add nucleotides to the 3’ end of an existing polynucleotide.

42. Redundancy in the genetic code means that (a) some nucleotide triplets code for several amino acids (b) each amino acid is coded for by a unique nucleotide triplet (c) more than one triplet can code for the same amino acid (d) all of these.

43. What would you expect to see on a karyotype slide? (a) sister chromatids (b) homologous pairs of chromosomes (c) any unusual chromosome structure (d) all of these.

44. What would you expect to find at a single locus? (a) homologous pairs (b) genes that affect the same trait (c) sister chromatids (d) DNA ligase (e) all of these.

45. What should the average person know about Aedes aegypti and Anopheles gambiae (a) They are or can be very dangerous animals. (b) They are vectors for infectious diseases. (c) They are mosquitoes that have influenced human history. (d) All of these.

46. In the influenza virus life cycle, evolutionarily significant events can occur during (a) RNA synthesis. (b) assembly of the glycoproteins in the coat. (c) infection of the host cell. (d) the immune reaction of the host. (e) All of these.

47. Immune mechanisms that protect a host against virus include (a) antibodies that promote virus binding. (b) killing of infected cells by the host. (c) mutations that occur during viral gene expression. (d) assembly of viral proteins. (e) all of these.

48. According to information provided in the reserve articles, approximately what percent of the known 1,415 infectious diseases either are or have the potential for being zoonotic? (a) None of them (0%). (b) All of them (100%). (c) Only a very few, but those few are quite deadly. (d) About 60%. (e) Almost 90% but most of those are human diseases we give to other animal species.

49. Why is a zoonotic viral disease likely to cause the next major pandemic? (a) Evolutionary principles suggest that multiple hosts provide a selected environment for numerous strains to arise. (b) Viruses reproduce so rapidly that mutations appear relatively quickly. (c) Their appearance is hard to predict of they occur in wild animals. (d) On a global scale, humans encounter non-human species frequently and in a great variety of ways. (e) all of these.

50. Why was the 1918-1919 influenza epidemic so lethal? (a) People had no immunity to the new viral proteins. (b) The infection spread quickly among soldiers, partly because of conditions under which they lived. (c) Scientists had relatively little knowledge of viruses at the time. (d) The virus could be spread through the air. (e) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-05-06 THIRD EXAM

1. Which of the following would be a gamete from an individual organism with the genotype rrYyPpIiGgAAss? (a) rypigaa (b) rryyss (c) rYGasip (d) PGAirys (e) none of these.

2. Under typical conditions, which of the following could NOT be a gamete produced by an individual of genotype rrYyPpIiGgAAss? (a) yysip (b) GAsiprY (c) rypigAs (d) Asg (e) all of these.

3. If you knew only the phenotype of the individual in the previous two questions, how could you determine for sure which loci were heterozygous? (a) Cross with a homozygous recessive. (b) Cross with a true-breeding line. (c) Cross with an individual of identical phenotype. (d) Any of these methods would work.

4. What proportion of the gametes produce by rrYyPpIiGgAAss contain both a recessive r and a recessive g? (a) all of them (b) none of them (c) one half (d) You can’t determine the answer from the information given. (e) You can’t determine the answer without doing a test cross.

5. Which of the following could be an offspring from doing a test cross with rrYyPpIiGgAAss? (a) rraa (b) PpSs (c) YYAA (d) ggii (e) none of these.

6. If you did a test cross with rrYyPpIiGgAAss, what fraction of the offspring would be the correct answer genotype from question #5? (a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/32 (e) 1/128.

7. If you tried to do a Punnett Square to calculate the phenotypic ratios resulting from the following cross: RrYygg x RryyGg, how many squares would that Punnett Square have? (a) 9 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64 (e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

8. According to your text, which of the following crosses will produce an F1 hybrid? (a) aabb x AABB (b) AaBb x AaBb (c) aabb x aabb (d) AABB x AABB (e) none of these.

9. According to your text, which of the following would be a dihybrid cross? (a) aabb x AABB (b) AaBb x AaBb (c) aabb x aabb (d) AABB x AABB (e) none of these.

10. In a typical dihybrid cross, offspring phenotypic ratios differ from genotypic ratios because (a) recessive alleles are expressed in phenotypes of heterozygotes. (b) dominant alleles can hide the presence of recessive alleles. (c) alleles at non-linked loci assort independently. (d) alleles at linked loci assort independently. (e) None of these.

11. Which of the following are the predicted phenotypic ratios in offspring from a dihybrid cross? (a) 1:2:1 (b) 9:3:3:1 (c) 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 (d) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

12. You suspect that loci to be considered in a dihybrid cross are linked. Which of the following is the testable hypothesis regarding phenotype ratios from this cross? (a) 1:2:1 (b) 9:3:3:1 (c) 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 (d) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

13. Is it possible to produce a hybrid without knowing whether the loci involved are linked or not? (a) yes (b) no (c) The answer depends on which loci are being considered. (d) only if the loci are sex linked (e) You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

14. Is it possible to do a test cross when the loci involved are linked? (a) yes (b) no (c) only if the loci are sex linked (d) The answer depends on which loci are being considered. (e) You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

15. Alleles segregate during meiosis because (a) they are on different homologous chromosome pairs. (b) they are at different loci. (c) they are on the same homologous chromosome pair. (d) sex-linked (e) linked.

16. Genes for different traits would assort independently at meiosis because (a) they are on different homologous chromosome pairs. (b) they are at different loci. (c) they are on the same homologous chromosome pair. (d) sex-linked (e) linked.

17. Which of the following would most strongly affect the genotypic ratios resulting from a test cross using linked loci? (a) independent assortment (b) segregation of alleles (c) distance between the loci (d) sex linkage (e) any of these.

18. In fruit flies, genes for traits that are sex linked (a) must also be linked. (b) must assort independently during meiosis. (c) must be on the Y chromosome. (d) must be expressed only in males. (e) all of these.

19. In offspring from a cross involving a sex linked trait, a dominant phenotype female, and a recessive phenotype male, (a) males will always have a recessive phenotype. (b) females will always have a recessive phenotype. (c) either sex could show a recessive phenotype depending on the female parent genotype. (d) neither sex could show a recessive phenotype. (e) You can’t determine the answer to this question.

20. Which of the following crosses will produce the most genetic diversity? (a) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

21. Which of the following crosses will produce the least genetic diversity? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) TTAAPPIIGGRRYY x ttaappiiggrryy.

22. Here is the genotype from the individual in Fig. 9.4 of your text: PPaaBb. You could view this individual as one that (a) “looks” like the dominant P phenotype. (b) “looks” like the recessive a phenotype. (c) “looks” like the dominant B phenotype but carries a recessive allele. (d) cannot produce an offspring that “looks” like a recessive p phenotype. (e) all of these.

23. In the cross TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy, what fraction of the offspring will be TtPp? (a) one half (b) one fourth (c) 1/64 (d) 1/128 (e) you can’t determine the answer from information given.

24. When you answered question #23, you multiplied fractions because (a) alleles segregate at meiosis. (b) different homologous pairs assort independently at meiosis. (c) some of the loci are linked. (d) the individuals are homozygous at some loci. (e) the individuals are heterozygous at some loci.

25. Most mutations are (a) recessive. (b) harmful. (c) rare. (d) all of these.

Here is some information about pea genes studied by Mendel:

R = round seed; r = wrinkled seed Y = yellow seed; y = green seed P = purple flower; p = white flower

I = inflated pod; i = constricted pod G = green pod; g = yellow pod A = axial flower; a = terminal flower

S = long stem; s = short stem

Answer the following questions about this cross: RrYyPpIiggAass x rrYyPPIiGgAass. You can assume complete dominance, and “kinds” means different combinations of alleles.

26. How many homologous pairs of chromosomes are represented by these genotypes? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

27. How many different kinds of gametes can the plant on the right make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

28. What fraction of the offspring from these plants will have green pods? (a) none of them (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them.

29. What do you know about the parents of the plant on the right? (a) They both had axial flowers. (b) One had long stems. (c) One had terminal flowers. (d) Both had purple flowers. (e) You can’t answer this question from the information given.

30. What fraction of the offspring from these two plants will have wrinkled seeds, short stems, and yellow pods? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) you can’t answer this question from the information given.

31. In order to figure out how many different kinds of gametes are made by each of these plants, you would have to cross each of them with (a) RrYyPpIiGgAaSs (b) RRYYPPIIGGAASS (c) rryyppiiggaass (d) any of these (e) none of these crosses will reveal the answer.

32. If you knew only the phenotypes of the above plants, what kind of genotype should you use in a cross in order to determine which loci of each plant are homozygous dominant and which are heterozygous? (a) RrYyPpIiGgAaSs (b) RRYYPPIIGGAASS (c) rryyppiiggaass (d) any of these (e) none of these crosses will reveal the answer.

33. Considering all the loci, how many phenotypes could be present in the offspring from these two plants? (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32 (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

34. Which phenotypes do you know cannot be present in the offspring from these two plants? (a) green pods (b) terminal flowers (c) long stems (d) wrinkled seeds (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

35. What fraction of the offspring of these plants will be homozygous dominant at all loci? (a) none (b) 1/16 (c) 1/32 (d) 1/128 (e) you can’t answer this question from the information given.

36. What fraction of the offspring of these plants will be homozygous recessive at all loci? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/16 (d) 1/256 (e) you can’t answer this question from the information given.

37. What fraction of the offspring of these plants will be heterozygous at all loci? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them. (End of pea plant questions.)

38. How many different kinds of gametes would an organism with the genotype AaDdMm be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

39. Which of the following could be a gamete made by the individual in question #39? (a) adm (b) ADM (c) adM (d) AdM (e) any of these.

40. If you knew only that the individual in question #37 had the dominant phenotype for traits A, D, and M, which of the following crosses would test the hypothesis that these loci were on different homologous chromosome pairs? (a) AaDdMm x aaddmm (b) AaDdMm x AaDdMm (c) AaDdMm x AADDMM (d) none of these crosses would be an adequate test of the hypothesis.

41. What information would you get from testing the hypothesis as indicated correctly in the previous question? (a) whether the traits assorted independently (b) relative distances between the loci (c) whether the individual was heterozygous at the three loci (d) all of these (e) none of these.

42. The Drosophila eye color genes referred to in your textbook are sex linked, with red (R) dominant over white (r). In a cross between a red-eyed male and a white-eyed female, (a) all male offspring would have white eyes. (b) all female offspring would have white eyes. (c) all male offspring would have red eyes. (d) half of the offspring would have red eyes regardless of sex. (e) You can’t answer this question from the information given.

43. Loci located on the Drosophila X-chromosome (a) must be heterozygous in the male. (b) cannot be heterozygous in the male. (c) must be heterozygous in the female. (d) cannot be heterozygous in females.

44. Loci located on the human X-chromosome (a) must be heterozygous in the male. (b) cannot be heterozygous in the male. (c) must be heterozygous in the female. (d) cannot be heterozygous in females.

45. If there are multiple alleles in a population, indicated by a₁, a₂, a₃ . . . a_n, then individuals can be (a) a₁a₂ (b) a₄a₉ (c) a₃a₇ (d) a₁a₃ (e) any of these.

46. The sickle trait in humans is considered pleiotropic because (a) it causes mutations. (b) it affects several different characteristics. (c) it is sex-linked. (d) it is represented by multiple alleles in the population.

47. In polygenic inheritance (a) multiple alleles must be in the population. (b) genes at several loci affect the same trait. (c) traits must be sex linked. (d) genes affecting the trait must be linked. (e) all of these.

48. Human blood types are a result of (a) multiple alleles in the population. (b) genes at several loci affecting the same trait. (c) sex linkage. (d) linked loci. (e) all of these.

49. Before mutations can be of evolutionary significance, they must (a) occur in somatic cells. (b) occur in germinal cells. (c) be linked. (d) be sex-linked. (e) have pleiotropic effects.

50. Crossing over that contributes to genetic diversity occurs (a) between non-homologous chromosomes. (b) between sister chromatids. (c) between linked loci. (d) between multiple alleles. (e) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-05-06 FINAL EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, clicker number, and the words “BS101 Final Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name (last name first) and clicker number. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 12:00. Choose the BEST answer.

1. What is a null hypothesis? (a) a statement used for determining which experimental group is more likely to differ from the controls (b) an assertion of no difference between experimental and control groups (c) a prediction that there will be a difference between the control and experimental groups (d) an untestable prediction.

2. If two structurally similar insects have different color patterns, your testable predictions might include (a) they are different sexes and I’m seeing sexual dimorphism. (b) they are different species even though they have similar structure. (c) they are different developmental stages of one species. (d) they are different morphs of a highly polymorphic species. (e) any of these.

3. Paradigms are (a) predictions of no difference between control and experimental groups. (b) views about nature that tend to determine acceptable lines of research and acceptable results of that research. (c) evidence used to answer questions about phylogeny. (d) predictions that cannot be falsified.

4. In a typical ecosystem involving plants, prey, predators, and decomposers, (a) energy is recycled but nutrients are not. (b) nutrients are recycled but energy is not. (c) over long periods of time, both energy and nutrients are recycled. (d) neither energy nor nutrients are recycled.

During the life cycle of HIV as outlined in your book, what eventually happens to the product of a reverse transcription reaction? (a) It ends up in the viral envelope. (b) It is inserted into the host cell DNA. (c) It is put into new viral RNA. (d) It ends up in the viral envelope glycoproteins.

6. During the life cycles of both HIV and influenza virus as outlined in your book, what is a major component of viral envelope? (a) host cell DNA (b) viral RNA (c) host cell membrane (d) viral DNA (e) provirus DNA.

7. According to your textbook, what is the major difference between HIV and influenza virus (IV) life cycles? (a) HIV uses host cell DNA for its envelope but IV does not. (b) IV DNA is incorporated into host cell chromosome but HIV is not. (c) HIV DNA is incorporated into host cell chromosome but IV DNA is not. (d) HIV uses host cell membrane to make envelope but IV does not.

8. Which of the following would be considered an anabolic reaction? (a) forming peptide bonds to generate a polypeptide (b) converting lipid into glycerol and fatty acids (c) using an enzyme to convert glycogen into glucose (d) breaking down RNA into nucleotides (e) none of these.

9. Which of the following would be considered a catabolic reaction? (a) forming peptide bonds to generate a polypeptide (b) converting lipid into glycerol and fatty acids (c) using an enzyme to convert glucose into glycogen (d) the reactions carried out by reverse transcriptase (e) all of these.

10. Which of the following would result from a hydrolytic reaction? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) nucleotides (d) all of these (e) none of these.

11. For a protein to function properly after being built by a cell, which of these must remain unchanged? (a) primary structure (b) tertiary structure (c) nucleotide sequence (d) amino acid sequence (e) structure of the peptide bonds.

12. Which of the following would be considered an initial step in digestion? (a) production of fatty acids from lipids (b) production of amino acids from proteins (c) production of nucleotides from DNA or RNA (d) production of glucose from glycogen (e) any of these.

13. If you digested the plasma membranes in a piece of beef, what would be some of the products of reactions carried out by hydrolytic enzymes? (a) glycerol (b) glucose (c) amino acids (d) fatty acids (e) all of these.

14. Polysaccharide portions of membrane glycoproteins probably (a) differ in their branching structure. (b) contain different kinds of amino acids. (c) have different nucleotide sequences. (d) are built by reverse transcriptase. (e) all of these.

15. Macromolecules can be highly specific but built according to the same general design because (a) the general design differs between species. (b) the sequence of similar parts can differ among various macromolecules. (c) some macromolecules have nucleotides while others have carbohydrates. (d) macromolecules built by dehydration synthesis differ from those built by hydrolysis.

16. If you studied lots of electron microscope pictures of cells, you would expect to discover (a) several membrane-bound organelles. (b) connections between nuclear envelope and rough ER. (c) con-nections between rough ER and smooth ER (d) vesicles near the Golgi. (e) all of these.

17. Objective evidence that could be cited to support a claim that humans are still evolving can be found in (a) the current population growth rate. (b) differential contribution of various nations to the global human population. (c) effects of the “Black Death” in Europe during the Middle Ages (d) birth rates in so-called “developed” nations.

18. Which of the following occurs during endocytosis but does not occur during exocytosis? (a) DNA synthesis (b) transport of particles from outside to inside a cell (c) movement of particles from inside to outside a cell (d) synthesis of macromolecules (e) movement of fluid from inside to outside a cell.

19. Which of the following processes moves molecules inside a cell but against a concentration gradient? (a) receptor-mediated uptake (b) facilitated diffusion (c) diffusion (d) active transport (e) exocytosis.

20. When enzyme reactions are linked (a) the substrate of one enzyme is also the substrate for another. (b) both enzymes produce the same product. (c) the product of one reaction is a substrate for the next. (d) one enzyme carries out two different reactions. (e) CoA and NAD+ are required for the reactions to occur.

21. According to the general catabolic metabolism diagrams in your textbook, a carbon atom from a peanut could end up in (a) acetyl CoA (b) pyruvate (c) one of the citric acid cycle intermediates (d) glucose (e) any of these.

22. According to the general anabolic metabolism diagrams in your textbook, a carbon atom from a peanut could end up in (a) acetyl CoA (b) pyruvate (c) one of the citric acid cycle intermediates (d) glucose (e) any of these.

23. Assuming that textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could end up as part of a mutant DNA strand you pass on to one of your children? (a) citric acid cycle intermediates (b) carbon from mitochondrial membrane lipids (c) nitrogen from beef (d) a 2-carbon piece carried by acetyl CoA (e) any of these.

24. Assuming that textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could end up part of an influenza virus particle you pass to your child? (a) citric acid cycle intermediates (b) carbon from mitochondrial membrane lipids (c) nitrogen from beef (d) any of these (e) none of these.

26. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair (b) have half many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair (e) enter G2 before they enter S.

27. The four daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair (b) have as many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair (e) enter G1 before they enter M.

28. If a species has 12 homologous pairs of chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be in each unfertilized egg from a female of that species? (a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) The answer depends on the number of sister chromatids produced during mitosis. (e) You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

29. If a species has 24 homologous pairs of chromosomes, how many homologous pairs would be in each fertilized egg of that species? (a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) The answer depends on the number of sister chromatids produced during mitosis. (e) You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

30. Which of the following events would occur during translation? (a) adenine pairing with thymine (b) peptide bonds being formed (c) DNA ligase linking polynucleotide pieces (d) addition of nucleotides to the 3’ end of an existing polynucleotide (e) none of these.

31. Which of the following could serve as a template for transcription in a eukaryotic cell? (a) ATTAGCGCT (b) GAUCCGAUG (c) GAAUCUCCG (d) AUGCCGCGG (e) any of these.

32. Which of the following could serve as a template for translation in a eukaryotic cell? (a) AUUAGCGCU (b) GAUCCGAUG (c) GAAUCUCCG (d) AUGCCGCGG (e) any of these.

33. What should the average person know about Aedes aegypti and Anopheles gambiae (a) They are or can be very dangerous animals. (b) They are vectors for infectious diseases. (c) They are mosquitoes that have influenced human history. (d) All of these.

34. In the influenza virus life cycle, evolutionarily significant events can occur during (a) RNA synthesis. (b) assembly of the glycoproteins in the coat. (c) infection of the host cell. (d) the immune reaction of the host. (e) All of these.

35. Immune mechanisms that protect a host against virus include (a) antibodies that promote virus binding. (b) killing of infected cells by the host. (c) mutations that occur during viral gene expression. (d) assembly of viral proteins. (e) all of these.

36. Why is a zoonotic viral disease likely to cause the next major pandemic? (a) Evolutionary principles suggest that multiple hosts provide a selected environment for numerous strains to arise. (b) Viruses reproduce so rapidly that mutations appear relatively quickly. (c) Their appearance is hard to predict of they occur in wild animals. (d) On a global scale, humans encounter non-human species frequently and in a great variety of ways. (e) all of these.

37. Why was the 1918-1919 influenza epidemic so lethal? (a) People had no immunity to the new viral proteins. (b) The infection spread quickly among soldiers, partly because of conditions under which they lived. (c) Scientists had relatively little knowledge of viruses at the time. (d) The virus could be spread through the air. (e) all of these.

38. If you knew only the phenotype of an individual, how could you determine for sure which loci were heterozygous? (a) Cross with a homozygous recessive. (b) Cross with a true-breeding line. (c) Cross with an individual of identical phenotype. (d) Any of these methods would work.

39. If you did a test cross with rrYyPpIiGgAAss, what fraction of the offspring would be homozygous recessive at both the Y and G loci? (a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/32 (e) 1/128.

40. In a typical dihybrid cross, offspring phenotypic ratios differ from genotypic ratios because (a) recessive alleles are expressed in phenotypes of heterozygotes. (b) dominant alleles can hide the presence of recessive alleles. (c) alleles at non-linked loci assort independently. (d) alleles at linked loci assort independently. (e) None of these.

41. You suspect that loci to be considered in a dihybrid cross are linked. Which of the following is the testable hypothesis regarding phenotype ratios from this cross? (a) 1:2:1 (b) 9:3:3:1 (c) 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 (d) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

42. Genes for different traits would assort independently at meiosis because (a) they are on different homologous chromosome pairs. (b) they are at different loci. (c) they are on the same homologous chromosome pair. (d) sex-linked (e) linked.

43. Which of the following would most strongly affect the genotypic ratios resulting from a test cross using linked loci? (a) independent assortment (b) segregation of alleles (c) distance between the loci (d) sex linkage (e) any of these.

44. In offspring from a cross involving a sex linked trait, a dominant phenotype female, and a recessive phenotype male, (a) males will always have a recessive phenotype. (b) females will always have a recessive phenotype. (c) either sex could show a recessive phenotype depending on the female parent genotype. (d) neither sex could show a recessive phenotype. (e) You can’t determine the answer to this question.

Here is some information about pea genes studied by Mendel:

R = round seed; r = wrinkled seed Y = yellow seed; y = green seed P = purple flower; p = white flower

I = inflated pod; i = constricted pod G = green pod; g = yellow pod A = axial flower; a = terminal flower

S = long stem; s = short stem

Answer the following questions about this cross: RrYyPpIiggAass x rrYyPPIiGgAass. You can assume complete dominance, and “kinds” means different combinations of alleles.

45. What do you know about the parents of the plant on the right? (a) They both had axial flowers. (b) One had long stems. (c) One had terminal flowers. (d) Both had purple flowers. (e) You can’t answer this question from the information given.

46. Which phenotypes do you know cannot be present in the offspring from these two plants? (a) green pods (b) terminal flowers (c) long stems (d) wrinkled seeds (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

47. If you knew only that an individual had the dominant phenotype for traits A, D, and M, which of the following crosses should test the hypothesis that these loci are on different homologous chromosome pairs? (a) AaDdMm x aaddmm (b) AaDdMm x AaDdMm (c) AaDdMm x AADDMM (d) none of these crosses would be an adequate test of the hypothesis.

48. What information would you get from testing the hypothesis as indicated correctly in the previous question? (a) whether the traits assorted independently (b) relative distances between the loci (c) whether the individual was heterozygous at the three loci (d) all of these (e) none of these.

49. The Drosophila eye color genes referred to in your textbook are sex linked, with red (R) dominant over white (r). In a cross between a red-eyed male and a white-eyed female, (a) all male offspring would have white eyes. (b) all female offspring would have white eyes. (c) all male offspring would have red eyes. (d) half of the offspring would have red eyes regardless of sex. (e) You can’t answer this question from the information given.

50. If there are multiple alleles in a population, indicated by a₁, a₂, a₃ . . . a_n, then individuals can be (a) a₁a₂ (b) a₄a₉ (c) a₃a₇ (d) a₁a₃ (e) any of these.

51. The sickle trait in humans is considered pleiotropic because (a) it causes mutations. (b) it affects several different characteristics. (c) it is sex-linked. (d) it is represented by multiple alleles in the population.

52. In polygenic inheritance (a) multiple alleles must be in the population. (b) genes at several loci affect the same trait. (c) traits must be sex linked. (d) genes affecting the trait must be linked. (e) all of these.

53. Which of the following is a feature of Bacteria but not of Archaea? (a) introns (b) RNA polymerase (c) peptidoglycan in the cell wall (d) histones (e) all of these.

54. If you developed a case of Lyme disease, you would likely conclude you’d been bitten by a (a) mosquito. (b) tick. (c) an infected raccoon. (d) spider. (e) Canis familiaris.

55. If you were doing research on phylogeny of Bryophyta, what would you be studying? (a) evolution of angiosperms (b) development of vertebrates (c) relationship between various prokaryote groups (d) evolutionary history of moss (e) distribution of fish fossils.

56. If you were doing research on the life cycles of Basidiomycetes, what might you actually be doing? (a) raising lungfish from eggs (b) making slides of mushroom spores (c) infecting mice with spirochaetes (d) identifying mosquitoes (e) collecting Cambrian fossils.

57. Grasses such as corn and bamboo are considered (a) gymnosperms (b) Bryophyta (c) Archaea (d) Basidiomycetes (e) angiosperms.

58. What testable hypothesis could be obtained from a current phylogeny of eukaryotes? (a) Dino-flagellates, apicomplexans, and ciliates are all alveolates. (b) Fungi and Animalia share a common ancestor. (c) Plants and algae share a common ancestor. (d) Amebas and molds form a monophyletic group. (e) all of these.

59. If you could use nucleic acid base sequences to test a phylogeny of eukaryotes, which of the following conclusions might result from such a test? (a) Plants and animals together form a monophyletic group. (b) Alveolates are a monophyletic group. (c) Green algae and amebas share a close common ancestor. (d) Fungi and plants form a monophyletic group. (e) any of these.

60. Lungfish are commonly used as an example to explain the fossil record because (a) their current distribution is consistent with our knowledge of continental drift. (b) they evidently appeared during the Paleozoic era and occupied fresh water habitats. (c) their fossils can be found throughout the world today. (d) they have primitive characters similar to ancient tetrapods. (e) all of these.

61. According to the fossil record, what happened at the end of the Permian? (a) Hominoidea appeared. (b) fish and amphibians first appeared. (c) most of the world’s genera became extinct. (d) dinosaurs became extinct. (e) most of the animal phyla appeared.

63. If you were looking for shared derived characters among Chordata, what might you actually be doing? (a) sequencing nucleic acids (b) comparing homologous pectoral appendages (c) dissecting rodents (d) collecting Mesozoic fossils (e) any of these.

64. If you were deciding which vertebrate characters were primitive, what might you actually be doing? (a) sequencing nucleic acids (b) comparing homologous pectoral appendages (c) dissecting rodents (d) collecting Mesozoic fossils (e) any of these.

65. Cladistic algorithms (a) require coded charcters. (b) establish groups based on shared derived characters. (c) use outgroup comparisons to polarize characters. (d) minimize the number of transformations required to construct a phylogeny. (e) all of these.

66. Scientists use cladistic algorithms to (a) construct testable hypotheses. (b) establish hypothetical relationships between groups of organisms. (c) develop classification schemes consistent with phylogeny. (d) search for potential ancestral traits. (e) all of these.

67. Which of the following data sources can be used to construct a phylogenetic hypothesis? (a) fossils (b) comparison of homologous structures (c) nucleotide sequences (d) amino acid sequences (e) all of these.

68. Which of the following data sources can be used to test a phylogenetic hypothesis? (a) fossils (b) comparison of homologous structures (c) nucleotide sequences (d) amino acid sequences (e) all of these.

69. In evolutionary terms, “fitness” refers to (a) size. (b) speed and strength. (c) geological time period of a species’ existence. (d) fecundity. (e) genetic diversity.

70. According to the fossil and geological records, what happened at the end of the Mesozoic? (a) Lungfish originated. (b) Pangaea broke apart. (c) Dinosaurs became extinct. (d) Humans appeared. (e) Land plants appeared.

71. Which of the following is considered a post-Darwinian addition to evolutionary theory? (a) the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (b) evidence that eukaryotic cells arose by symbiosis (c) genetics (d) amino acid sequence homology in proteins (e) all of these.

72. Present day distribution of extant lungfish is considered, by scientists, to be mainly a result of (a) migration through the ocean. (b) migration through rivers. (c) continental drift. (d) divergent evolution following isolation.

73. Present day diversity of lungfish species is considered, by scientists, to be mainly a result of (a) migration through the ocean. (b) migration through rivers. (c) continental drift. (d) divergent evolution following isolation.

74. Distribution of fossil lungfish is considered, by scientists, to be evidence of (a) continental drift. (b) migration through the ocean prior to the breakup of Pangaea. (c) migration through the ocean after the breakup of Pangaea (d) migration through rivers and divergent evolution prior to the breakup of Pangaea. (e) the Permian extinction.

75. Pharyngeal pouches and post-anal tail are (a) embryonic characters of Chordata. (b) derived characters of echinoderms. (c) primitive characters of Brachiopoda. (d) adult characters of Hominoidea.

76. Which of the following moss life cycle stages would you expect to be diploid? (a) spores (b) sporophyte (c) gametes (d) gametophyte (e) all of these.

77. Which of the following angiosperm life cycle stages would you expect to be haploid? (a) sporophyte (b) male gametophytes (c) seeds (d) embryos (e) none of these.

78. Life is sometimes characterized as an emergent property. This idea implies that living organisms are alive because of (a) the arrangement of their parts. (b) the chemical elements they contain. (c) their fossil record. (d) their evolutionary history.

79. According to most of the scientific community, Intelligent Design fails as a scientific theory because (a) it explains only the origin of emergent properties. (b) it generates only null hypotheses. (c) it does not and cannot produce testable hypotheses. (d) although its causal processes can be studied using testable hypotheses, ID produces no cladistic algorithms. (e) its cladistic algorithms are mathematically incorrect.

80. The main null hypothesis of Erica Peterson's research would be: (a) shrimps’ respiration rates remain the same regardless of the solution they are in. (b) oil or other pollutants have no effect on shrimp immune systems. (c) pufferfish respond negatively when placed into the red waters. (d) the oil industry has no effect on commercial fisheries in Mexico. (e) protozoans can be used as a means of exploring the effects of pollution on commercial fisheries.

81. The fossil record and studies of comparative anatomy both provide structural evidence for homologies between pectoral appendage bones of (a) amphibians and fish. (b) virtually all tetrapods. (c) dinosaurs and birds. (d) humans and bats. (e) all of these.

82. According to evidence present in various caves in France, for how long have modern humans been drawing pictures of organisms such as bison and mammoths? (a) since sometime near the end of the Cretaceous (b) at least 15,000 years (c) since the end of the Paleozoic (d) since the breakup of Pangaea.

83. According to the fossil evidence as presented in current university level textbooks such as yours, the genus Homo, to which we belong, appeared on Earth about (a) 200 million years ago. (b) 2-5 million years ago. (c) sometime near the end of the Cretaceous. (d) 6000 years ago.

84. According to the fossil record, the Devonian period was characterized by the appearance of (a) mammals. (b) hominoids. (c) the first tetrapods. (d) flowering plants. (e) all of these.

85. Hemoglobin is the protein that carries oxygen to the blood in vertebrates. Study of homologies in vertebrate hemoglobin suggest that nucleotide sequences in human hemoglobin genes most closely match those of (a) echinoderms. (b) chickens. (c) frogs. (d) other primates. (e) alveolates.

86. If you were looking for an example of some group that was once represented on Earth by a rich and diverse group of Paleozoic species, but is represented by only a few extant species, you could choose (a) grasses. (b) brachiopods. (c) orchids. (d) mammals in general. (e) angiosperms in general.

87. Highly diverse and numerous groups abundantly represented in the fossil record but rarely if ever discussed in freshman biology texts include (a) amebas and brachiopods. (b) Bryophyta and alveolates. (c) Pongidae and Hylobatidae. (d) mammals. (e) vertebrates in general.

88. The groups most prominently represented in the fossil record are probably (a) mammals. (b) hominoids. (c) echinoderms and mollusks. (d) insects. (e) algae.

89. Desert plants from Baja California and Madagascar are typically used to illustrate which of the following evolutionary concepts? (a) disruptive selection (b) convergence (c) superfecundity (d) symbiotic origin of eukaryotic cells (e) the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

90. Which of the following evolutionary concepts could easily, and probably have been easily, applied to agricultural research for the past 3000 years? (a) directional selection (b) disruptive selection (c) variable and heritable traits (d) differential survival (e) all of these.

91. Evidence that behavioral traits can evolve is provided by (a) human birth weight frequency distributions. (b) hominoid pectoral appendage structure. (c) the results of fruit fly selection experiments. (d) parasites on the surface of shrimp. (e) Intelligent Design ideas.

92. Human birth weight frequencies provide evidence for (a) directional selection. (b) stabilizing selection. (c) disruptive selection. (d) monophyletic evolution. (e) relationships within Hominoidea.

93. If the frequency of a recessive phenotype in a population is 0.49, what is the expected frequency of the dominant allele for that same trait? (a) zero (b) 0.30 (c) 0.51 (d) 0.70 (e) You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

94. If the frequency of the dominant phenotype in a population is 0.99, what is the expected frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.10 (b) 0.01 (c) 0.90 (d) zero (e) You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

95. If you know that the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is 0.1, what is the expected frequency of individuals heterozygous for that trait? (a) 0.99 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.09 (d) 0.18 (e) You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

96. In the populations of the previous three questions, what events might lead to results other than those expected? (a) transcription (b) translation (c) independent assortment (d) crossing over (e) non-random interbreeding.

97. If, in an experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele, you would expect the frequency of the dominant phenotype to (a) increase. (b) decrease. (c) stay the same. (e) decrease to zero within a few generations. (d) You can’t test your expectations with the information given.

98. If, in an experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele in order to test for the effects of selection, your null hypothesis states that after several generations of selection, the frequency of the dominant allele would be (a) higher (b) lower (c) the same as when you started (d) the same as that of the recessive allele. (e) You can’t develop a testable hypothesis in this situation.

99. Structure of the ilium, femoral chondyles, and hallux should provide evidence for (a) phylogenetic relationships. (b) manner of locomotion. (c) species to which a specimen belongs. (d) size of a living or fossil vertebrate. (e) all of these.

100. According to commonly accepted classification schemes, you share enough structural features to be placed in the same superfamily as (a) cats, dogs, and raccoons. (b) chimpanzees, gibbons, and certain fossil primates. (c) all mammals with a humerus, radius, and ulna. (d) only those mammals whose pectoral appendage bones are homologous. (e) all of these.